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An IS audit review identifies inconsistencies in privacy requirements across third-party service provider contracts. Which of the following is the BEST

recommendation to address this situation?

A.
Suspend contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data.
A.
Suspend contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data.
Answers
B.
Prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers.
B.
Prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers.
Answers
C.
Review privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal.
C.
Review privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal.
Answers
D.
Require third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).
D.
Require third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best recommendation to address the situation of inconsistencies in privacy requirements across third-party service provider contracts is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers. This is because:

Privacy requirements are essential to ensure the protection of personal information and compliance with relevant laws and regulations, such as the GDPR and the CCPA123.

Inconsistencies in privacy requirements can create risks of data breaches, legal liabilities, reputational damage, and consumer distrust for the organization that outsources its data processing to third-party providers123.

Suspending contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data (option A) is not a feasible or effective solution, as it may disrupt the business operations and cause contractual penalties or disputes4.

Reviewing privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal (option C) is not a proactive or timely approach, as it may leave the organization exposed to privacy risks for a long period of time until the contracts expire4.

Requiring third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) (option D) is not a sufficient measure, as NDAs only cover the confidentiality of information, but not other aspects of privacy, such as data minimization, retention, access, deletion, and security4.

Therefore, the best recommendation is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers (option B), as this would allow the organization to align the privacy requirements with its own policies and standards, as well as with the applicable laws and regulations.This would also enable the organization to monitor and audit the compliance of third-party providers with the privacy requirements and enforce appropriate remedies or sanctions in case of noncompliance45.

Which of the following BEST facilitates strategic program management?

A.
Implementing stage gates
A.
Implementing stage gates
Answers
B.
Establishing a quality assurance (QA) process
B.
Establishing a quality assurance (QA) process
Answers
C.
Aligning projects with business portfolios
C.
Aligning projects with business portfolios
Answers
D.
Tracking key project milestones
D.
Tracking key project milestones
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The best option that facilitates strategic program management is aligning projects with business portfolios (option C). This is because:

Strategic program management is the coordinated planning, management, and execution of multiple related projects that are directed toward the same strategic goals12.

Aligning projects with business portfolios means ensuring that the projects within a program are aligned with the organization's strategic objectives, vision, and mission .

Aligning projects with business portfolios helps to prioritize the most valuable and impactful projects, optimize the allocation of resources, monitor the progress and performance of the program, and deliver the expected benefits and outcomes .

Implementing stage gates (option A) is a process of reviewing and approving projects at predefined points in their lifecycle to ensure that they meet the quality, scope, time, and cost criteria. While this can help to control and improve the project management process, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.

Establishing a quality assurance (QA) process (option B) is a process of ensuring that the project deliverables meet the quality standards and requirements of the stakeholders. While this can help to enhance the quality and satisfaction of the project outcomes, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.

Tracking key project milestones (option D) is a process of monitoring and reporting the completion of significant events or deliverables in a project. While this can help to measure and communicate the progress and status of the project, it does not necessarily facilitate strategic program management, as it does not address the alignment of projects with business portfolios.

Therefore, the best option that facilitates strategic program management is aligning projects with business portfolios (option C), as this ensures that the projects within a program are consistent with the organization's strategic goals and objectives.

Which of the following is the MAIN risk associated with adding a new system functionality during the development phase without following a project change management process?

A.
The added functionality has not been documented.
A.
The added functionality has not been documented.
Answers
B.
The new functionality may not meet requirements.
B.
The new functionality may not meet requirements.
Answers
C.
The project may fail to meet the established deadline.
C.
The project may fail to meet the established deadline.
Answers
D.
The project may go over budget.
D.
The project may go over budget.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The main risk associated with adding a new system functionality during the development phase without following a project change management process is that the new functionality may not meet requirements (option B). This is because:

A project change management process is a set of procedures that defines how changes to the project scope, schedule, budget, quality, or resources are requested, evaluated, approved, implemented, and controlled12.

A project change management process helps to ensure that the changes are aligned with the project objectives, stakeholders' expectations, and business needs12.

Adding a new system functionality during the development phase without following a project change management process can introduce risks such as:

The added functionality has not been documented (option A), which can lead to confusion, inconsistency, errors, and rework3.

The project may fail to meet the established deadline (option C), which can result in delays, penalties, and customer dissatisfaction3.

The project may go over budget (option D), which can cause cost overruns, financial losses, and reduced profitability3.

However, the main risk is that the new functionality may not meet requirements (option B), which can have serious consequences such as:

The new functionality may not be compatible with the existing system or other components3.

The new functionality may not be tested or verified for quality, performance, security, or usability3.

The new functionality may not deliver the expected value or benefits to the users or customers3.

The new functionality may not comply with the regulatory or contractual obligations3.

The new functionality may cause dissatisfaction, complaints, or litigation from the stakeholders3.

Therefore, the main risk associated with adding a new system functionality during the development phase without following a project change management process is that the new functionality may not meet requirements (option B), as this can jeopardize the success and acceptance of the project.

Retention periods and conditions for the destruction of personal data should be determined by the.

A.
risk manager.
A.
risk manager.
Answers
B.
database administrator (DBA).
B.
database administrator (DBA).
Answers
C.
privacy manager.
C.
privacy manager.
Answers
D.
business owner.
D.
business owner.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The business owner is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility for defining the purpose and scope of the processing of personal data, as well as the expected outcomes and benefits. The business owner is also accountable for ensuring that the processing of personal data complies with the applicable laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the Data Protection Act 2018 (DPA 2018).

One of the requirements of the GDPR and the DPA 2018 is to adhere to the principle of storage limitation, which states that personal data should be kept for no longer than is necessary for the purposes for which it is processed1. This means that the business owner should determine and justify how long they need to retain personal data, based on factors such as:

The nature and sensitivity of the personal data

The legal or contractual obligations or rights that apply to the personal data

The business or operational needs and expectations that depend on the personal data

The risks and impacts that may arise from retaining or deleting the personal data

The business owner should also establish and document the conditions and methods for the destruction of personal data, such as:

The criteria and triggers for deciding when to destroy personal data

The procedures and tools for securely erasing or anonymising personal data

The roles and responsibilities for carrying out and overseeing the destruction of personal data

The records and reports for verifying and evidencing the destruction of personal data

Therefore, retention periods and conditions for the destruction of personal data should be determined by the business owner, as they are in charge of defining and managing the processing of personal data, as well as ensuring its compliance with the law.

In an environment where data virtualization is used, which of the following provides the BEST disaster recovery solution?

A.
Onsite disk-based backup systems
A.
Onsite disk-based backup systems
Answers
B.
Tape-based backup systems
B.
Tape-based backup systems
Answers
C.
Virtual tape library
C.
Virtual tape library
Answers
D.
Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
D.
Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A virtual tape library (VTL) is a disk-based backup system that emulates a tape library. It provides faster backup and recovery than traditional tape systems, and it can be integrated with data deduplication and replication technologies to enhance disaster recovery. A VTL can also be replicated to an offsite location for additional protection. A VTL is the best disaster recovery solution for an environment where data virtualization is used, because it can handle large volumes of data, support multiple backup applications, and provide consistent performance.

Onsite disk-based backup systems (A) are not the best disaster recovery solution, because they are vulnerable to the same risks as the primary data center, such as fire, flood, power outage, or sabotage. Tape-based backup systems (B) are not the best disaster recovery solution, because they are slow, prone to errors, and require manual intervention. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) (D) is not a backup system, but a storage technology that improves performance and fault tolerance by distributing data across multiple disks. RAID does not protect against data corruption, human error, or malicious attacks.

Virtualization Disaster Recovery Overview: Definitions and Guides

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Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk of data leakage in the cloud environment?

A.
Lack of data retention policy
A.
Lack of data retention policy
Answers
B.
Multi-tenancy within the same database
B.
Multi-tenancy within the same database
Answers
C.
Lack of role-based access
C.
Lack of role-based access
Answers
D.
Expiration of security certificate
D.
Expiration of security certificate
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Multi-tenancy within the same database (B) presents the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it means that multiple customers share the same physical database and resources. This can lead to data isolation and security issues, such as unauthorized access, cross-tenant attacks, or data leakage due to misconfiguration or human error. To prevent data leakage in a multi-tenant database, cloud providers need to implement strict access control policies, encryption, isolation mechanisms, and auditing tools.

Lack of data retention policy (A) is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it mainly affects the availability and compliance of data, not its confidentiality or integrity. Data retention policy defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. Without a data retention policy, cloud customers may face legal or regulatory issues, storage costs, or performance degradation.

Lack of role-based access is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it can be mitigated by implementing proper authentication and authorization mechanisms. Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security model that assigns permissions and privileges to users based on their roles and responsibilities. Without RBAC, cloud customers may face unauthorized access, privilege escalation, or data misuse.

Expiration of security certificate (D) is not the greatest risk of data leakage in the cloud environment, because it can be easily detected and renewed. A security certificate is a digital document that verifies the identity and authenticity of a website or service. It also enables secure communication using encryption. If a security certificate expires, it may cause trust issues, warning messages, or connection errors, but not necessarily data leakage.

7 Ways to Prevent Data Leaks in the Cloud | OTAVA

An analysis of data leakage and prevention techniques in cloud environment

During the walk-through procedures for an upcoming audit, an IS auditor notes that the key application in scope is part of a Software as a Service (SaaS)

agreement. What should the auditor do NEXT?

A.
Verify whether IT management monitors the effectiveness of the environment.
A.
Verify whether IT management monitors the effectiveness of the environment.
Answers
B.
Verify whether a right-to-audit clause exists.
B.
Verify whether a right-to-audit clause exists.
Answers
C.
Verify whether a third-party security attestation exists.
C.
Verify whether a third-party security attestation exists.
Answers
D.
Verify whether service level agreements (SLAs) are defined and monitored.
D.
Verify whether service level agreements (SLAs) are defined and monitored.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The auditor should verify whether a right-to-audit clause exists (B) next, because it is a contractual provision that grants the auditor the right to access and examine the records, systems, and processes of the SaaS provider. A right-to-audit clause is important for ensuring transparency, accountability, and compliance of the SaaS provider with the customer's requirements and expectations.A right-to-audit clause can also help the auditor to identify and mitigate any risks or issues related to the SaaS agreement12.

Verifying whether IT management monitors the effectiveness of the environment (A) is not the next step, because it is a part of the ongoing monitoring and evaluation process, not the initial walk-through procedures. The auditor should first establish the scope, objectives, and criteria of the audit before assessing the performance and controls of the SaaS provider.

Verifying whether a third-party security attestation exists is not the next step, because it is not a mandatory requirement for a SaaS agreement. A third-party security attestation is a report or certificate issued by an independent auditor that evaluates and validates the security controls and practices of the SaaS provider.A third-party security attestation can provide assurance and confidence to the customer, but it does not replace or eliminate the need for a right-to-audit clause3.

Verifying whether service level agreements (SLAs) are defined and monitored (D) is not the next step, because it is not directly related to the audit process. SLAs are contractual agreements that specify the quality, availability, and performance standards of the SaaS provider.SLAs are important for measuring and managing the service delivery and customer satisfaction, but they do not grant or guarantee the right to audit4.

What would be the PRIMARY reason an IS auditor would recommend replacing universal PIN codes with an RFID access card system at a data center?

A.
To improve traceability
A.
To improve traceability
Answers
B.
To prevent piggybacking
B.
To prevent piggybacking
Answers
C.
To implement multi-factor authentication
C.
To implement multi-factor authentication
Answers
D.
To reduce maintenance costs
D.
To reduce maintenance costs
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The primary reason an IS auditor would recommend replacing universal PIN codes with an RFID access card system at a data center is to improve traceability (A). Traceability is the ability to track and monitor the activities and movements of individuals or objects within a system or environment. Traceability is important for ensuring security, accountability, and compliance in a data center, where sensitive and critical data are stored and processed.

An RFID access card system can improve traceability by using RFID technology to verify and record the identity and access of each user who enters or exits the data center. RFID stands for Radio Frequency Identification, and it enables wireless communication between a reader and an RFID tag. An RFID tag is installed in a door key card or fob, which users use to gain access to the data center. An RFID reader is installed near the door, and it contains an antenna that receives data transmitted by the RFID tag. A control panel is a computer server that reads and interprets the data passed along by the RFID reader.A database is a storage system that stores the data collected by the control panel1.

An RFID access card system can provide several benefits for traceability, such as123:

It can uniquely identify each user and their access level, and prevent unauthorized access or impersonation.

It can record the date, time, and duration of each user's access, and generate logs and reports for auditing purposes.

It can monitor the location and status of each user within the data center, and alert security personnel in case of any anomalies or emergencies.

It can integrate with other security systems, such as cameras, alarms, or biometrics, to enhance verification and protection.

A universal PIN code system, on the other hand, can compromise traceability by using a single or shared personal identification number (PIN) to grant access to multiple users.A universal PIN code system can pose several risks for traceability, such as4:

It can be easily guessed, stolen, shared, or compromised by malicious actors or insiders.

It can not distinguish between different users or their access levels, and allow unauthorized or excessive access.

It can not record or track the activities or movements of each user within the data center, and create gaps or errors in the audit trail.

It can not integrate with other security systems, and provide limited verification and protection.

Therefore, an IS auditor would recommend replacing universal PIN codes with an RFID access card system at a data center to improve traceability.

RFID Access Control Guide: 4 Best RFID Access Control Systems - ButterflyMX

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Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) system?

A.
Compliance testing
A.
Compliance testing
Answers
B.
Stop-or-go sampling
B.
Stop-or-go sampling
Answers
C.
Substantive testing
C.
Substantive testing
Answers
D.
Variable sampling
D.
Variable sampling
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Substantive testing provides the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's security information and event management (SIEM) system, because it is a type of audit testing that directly examines the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of the data and transactions recorded in the logs.Substantive testing can involve various methods, such as re-performance, inspection, observation, inquiry, or computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs), to verify the existence, occurrence, valuation, ownership, presentation, and disclosure of the log data1.Substantive testing can also detect any errors, omissions, alterations, or manipulations of the log data that may indicate fraud or misstatement2.

Compliance testing (A) is not the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's SIEM system, because it is a type of audit testing that evaluates the design and effectiveness of the internal controls that are implemented to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and procedures.Compliance testing can involve various methods, such as walkthroughs, questionnaires, checklists, or flowcharts, to assess the adequacy, consistency, and operation of the internal controls1.Compliance testing can provide assurance that the log data are generated and processed in accordance with the established rules and standards, but it does not directly verify the accuracy and reliability of the log data itself2.

Stop-or-go sampling (B) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to select a sample from a population for testing. Stop-or-go sampling is a sequential sampling technique that allows auditors to stop testing before reaching the predetermined sample size if the results are satisfactory or conclusive.Stop-or-go sampling can reduce the audit cost and time by avoiding unnecessary testing, but it can also increase the sampling risk and uncertainty by relying on a smaller sample3. Stop-or-go sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.

Variable sampling (D) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to estimate a numerical characteristic of a population for testing. Variable sampling is a statistical sampling technique that allows auditors to measure the amount or rate of error or deviation in a population by using quantitative methods.Variable sampling can provide precise and objective results by using mathematical formulas and confidence intervals4. Variable sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization's SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.

Audit Testing Procedures - 5 Types and Their Use Cases

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Stop-or-Go Sampling Definition

Variable Sampling Definition

What is the FIRST step when creating a data classification program?

A.
Categorize and prioritize data.
A.
Categorize and prioritize data.
Answers
B.
Develop data process maps.
B.
Develop data process maps.
Answers
C.
Categorize information by owner.
C.
Categorize information by owner.
Answers
D.
Develop a policy.
D.
Develop a policy.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The first step when creating a data classification program is to develop a policy (D). A data classification policy is a document that defines the purpose, scope, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and procedures of the data classification program. A data classification policy is essential for establishing the governance framework, standards, and guidelines for the data classification process.A data classification policy also helps to communicate the expectations and benefits of the data classification program to the stakeholders, such as data owners, users, custodians, and auditors12.

Categorizing and prioritizing data (A) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the third step. Categorizing and prioritizing data involves defining and applying the criteria and labels for classifying data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. For example, data can be categorized into public, internal, confidential, or restricted levels.Categorizing and prioritizing data helps to identify and protect the most critical and sensitive data assets of the organization12.

Developing data process maps (B) is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the fourth step. Developing data process maps involves documenting and analyzing the flow and lifecycle of data within the organization. Data process maps show how data is created, collected, stored, processed, transmitted, used, shared, archived, and disposed of.Developing data process maps helps to understand the context and dependencies of data, as well as to identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues related to data quality, security, or compliance12.

Categorizing information by owner is not the first step when creating a data classification program, but the second step. Categorizing information by owner involves assigning roles and responsibilities for each type of data based on its ownership and stewardship. Data owners are the individuals or entities that have the authority and accountability for the data. Data stewards are the individuals or entities that have the operational responsibility for managing and maintaining the data.Data custodians are the individuals or entities that have the technical responsibility for implementing and enforcing the security and access controls for the data12.

7 Steps to Effective Data Classification | CDW

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