ExamGecko
Home Home / ISTQB / CTFL-2018

ISTQB CTFL-2018 Practice Test - Questions Answers

Question list
Search
Search

Related questions











What are metrics NOT used for?

A.
To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
A.
To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
Answers
B.
To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.
B.
To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.
Answers
C.
To apply to the RAD development model.
C.
To apply to the RAD development model.
Answers
D.
To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.
D.
To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

To apply to the RAD development model. Metrics are quantitative measures that can be used to monitor, control, and improve the test process and the quality of the system. Metrics can be used for various purposes, such as to identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation or test case preparation, to measure whether dates of test milestones were met, to compare actual results with expected results, to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of testing, etc. However, metrics are not specific to any development model, such as RAD (Rapid Application Development), and can be applied to any type of software development project. A detailed explanation of metrics can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 103-105.

Which of the following is a white box testing design characteristic?

A.
To be based on specifications
A.
To be based on specifications
Answers
B.
To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation
B.
To be based on an analysis of the test basis documentation
Answers
C.
To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system
C.
To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system
Answers
D.
To include both functional and non-functional testing
D.
To include both functional and non-functional testing
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

To be based on an analysis of the structure of the component or system. White box testing techniques are based on the internal structure and code of the system, not on its specifications or functionality. White box testing techniques include statement coverage, decision coverage, branch coverage, path coverage, etc. White box testing techniques are usually performed at lower levels of testing, such as unit testing or component testing. A detailed explanation of white box testing techniques can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 68-74.

In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:

_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.

_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.

_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.

Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

A.
$28,000
A.
$28,000
Answers
B.
$1,500
B.
$1,500
Answers
C.
$33,501
C.
$33,501
Answers
D.
$5,000
D.
$5,000
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Boundary Value Analysis is a black-box testing technique that is used to test the boundaries or limits of input or output values for a given system or component. Boundary Value Analysis helps to identify errors at the edges of an input or output domain. For example, in a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid, there are four boundaries for the salary input: $4,000 (lower boundary for tax free), $5,500 (upper boundary for tax free and lower boundary for 10% tax), $34,000 (upper boundary for 10% tax and lower boundary for 22% tax), and any value above $34,000 (upper boundary for 22% tax and lower boundary for 40% tax). A valid Boundary Value Analysis test case would test one value below, on, and above each boundary. For example, $33,501 is a valid test case because it is one value above the boundary of $34,000. A detailed explanation of Boundary Value Analysis can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 38-41.

What is a test condition?

A.
A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.
A.
A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.
Answers
B.
An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.
B.
An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.
Answers
C.
The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.
C.
The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.
Answers
D.
All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.
D.
All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases. A test condition is a general term that refers to anything that can be tested by a test case, such as a requirement, a function, a feature, a use case, a user story, etc. A test condition is derived from the test basis (the source of information for testing) and serves as an input for test design and test case creation. A test condition can be expressed in natural language or in a formal notation. A detailed explanation of test condition can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 17-18.

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

A.
Independent testers within the development teams
A.
Independent testers within the development teams
Answers
B.
Independent testers from the user community
B.
Independent testers from the user community
Answers
C.
Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists
C.
Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists
Answers
D.
Code tested by another developer from the development team
D.
Code tested by another developer from the development team
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The test organization that has the highest level of independence is C. Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists. Test independence refers to the degree of separation between the tester and the developer or user of the system or component under test. Test independence can help to reduce bias and increase objectivity in testing. Independent test specialists are testers who have specialized skills and knowledge in specific test types or domains and who are not involved in the development or use of the system or component under test. Independent test specialists can provide more reliable and accurate results than testers who are part of the development team or user community. A detailed explanation of test independence can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 9-10.

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

A.
Migration of software onto a new platform
A.
Migration of software onto a new platform
Answers
B.
Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system
B.
Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system
Answers
C.
Purchase of a new software tool
C.
Purchase of a new software tool
Answers
D.
Updating of a regression suite
D.
Updating of a regression suite
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A circumstance where maintenance testing is required is A. Migration of software onto a new platform. Migration of software onto a new platform is a type of change that affects the delivered software product and requires maintenance testing to ensure that the software product still works correctly and consistently on the new platform. A new platform can be a different hardware, operating system, network, database, browser, etc., that supports or interacts with the software product. Migration of software onto a new platform can introduce compatibility issues, performance issues, security issues, etc., that need to be detected and resolved by maintenance testing. A detailed explanation of migration testing can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], page 82.

Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

A.
Executing the software work product
A.
Executing the software work product
Answers
B.
Manually examining the code or project documentation
B.
Manually examining the code or project documentation
Answers
C.
Automated analysis of the code or project documentation
C.
Automated analysis of the code or project documentation
Answers
D.
Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation
D.
Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The statement that best defines static techniques is D. Manual examination and automated analysis of code or project documentation. Static techniques are techniques that analyze the code or other software artifacts (such as requirements, specifications, designs, models, test cases, etc.) without executing them, and provide information about their quality, defects, complexity, maintainability, etc. Static techniques can be performed manually or automatically by using tools or methods such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, checklists, standards, guidelines, static analysis tools, code metrics tools, etc. Static techniques can help to improve the quality and consistency of code or other software artifacts throughout the software development life cycle and reduce the cost and effort of testing and debugging. A detailed explanation of static techniques can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 27-34.

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

A.
Adjudicator
A.
Adjudicator
Answers
B.
Moderator
B.
Moderator
Answers
C.
Governor
C.
Governor
Answers
D.
Corrector
D.
Corrector
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A role of a formal review is B. Moderator. A formal review is a type of static technique that involves a structured process of examining code or other software artifacts by a team of reviewers who follow predefined roles and rules. A formal review has four main phases: planning, preparation, meeting, and follow-up. A formal review has five main roles: author (the person who created the code or other software artifact under review), moderator (the person who leads and facilitates the review process), reviewer (the person who examines the code or other software artifact under review and provides feedback), scribe (the person who records the issues and outcomes of the review meeting), and manager (the person who monitors and controls the review process). A moderator is a key role in a formal review because he or she is responsible for planning, organizing, conducting, and reporting the review activities and ensuring that the review objectives are met. A detailed explanation of formal reviews can be found in [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus], pages 35-37.

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

A.
Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.
A.
Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.
Answers
B.
Scaling to support large numbers of users.
B.
Scaling to support large numbers of users.
Answers
C.
Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.
C.
Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.
Answers
D.
Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.
D.
Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

This is the definition of a data driven approach to test automation design, which allows for reusability and maintainability of test scripts. Option A describes a keyword driven approach, which uses action words to describe the test steps and data. Option B is not related to test automation design, but rather to performance testing. Option C is also not related to test automation design, but rather to a testing technique.

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

A.
Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.
A.
Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.
Answers
B.
Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.
B.
Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.
Answers
C.
Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.
C.
Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.
Answers
D.
Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.
D.
Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000. The level of risk to the project can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood of failure by the potential cost of impact. This gives us the following values for each option:

A: 1% x $1m = $10,000 B. 10% x $500,000 = $50,000 C. 20% x $150,000 = $30,000 D. 5% x $500,000 = $25,000

Total 365 questions
Go to page: of 37