ISTQB CTFL-2018 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 11
List of questions
Question 101

What can testing demonstrate?
Testing can demonstrate that there are defects in the software, by finding and reporting them. Testing cannot demonstrate that there are no defects, because it is impossible to test all possible scenarios and inputs. Testing cannot demonstrate that the software is correct, because correctness is a subjective and relative concept that depends on the expectations and requirements of the stakeholders. Testing cannot demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software, because hidden defects are those that are not detected by testing or other quality assurance activities.
Question 102

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:
Equivalence partitioning is best defined as an analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors. The idea is to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each group or partition. Equivalence partitioning does not apply to time-related data classes only, but to any type of input data that can be divided into partitions. Equivalence partitioning is not a form of white-box testing, but a black-box testing technique. Equivalence partitioning is not a method to reduce test coverage, but a method to achieve test coverage more efficiently.
Question 103

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:
Dynamic analysis tools are used to find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing. Dynamic analysis tools monitor the behavior and performance of the software under various conditions and report on any anomalies or errors. Dynamic analysis tools are not used to determine differences between files or databases, which is a function of comparison tools. Dynamic analysis tools are not used to measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised, which is a function of code coverage tools.
Question 104

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?
Date of Issue: 23/11/05
Severity: P1
Build: Version15.6
Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27
The other details that should be included in the incident report when it is first submitted are B. Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number. These details are important to provide information about the current state of the incident, the severity of its effect on the system or user, and the test case that detected the incident. Other details, such as suggested solution, priority, history, related defects, expected fix time, line of code, etc., can be added later during the incident management process. A detailed explanation of incident report can be found inA Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 99-1001.
Question 105

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'
Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density. Exit criteria are the conditions that must be met before testing can be completed and the system can be released. Exit criteria can be based on factors such as coverage of code or requirements, schedule or budget constraints, estimates of defect density or severity, etc. Exit criteria help to determine when to stop testing and evaluate the quality of the system. A detailed explanation of exit criteria can be found inA Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 15-161.
Question 106

What is decision table testing?
A testing design technique based in the system requirements. Decision table testing is a black-box testing technique that is used to test complex business rules or logic that involve multiple conditions and actions. Decision table testing uses a tabular format to represent all possible combinations of inputs (conditions) and outputs (actions) for a given decision. Decision table testing helps to ensure that all scenarios are covered and tested. A detailed explanation of decision table testing can be found inA Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 47-511.
Question 107

Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:
Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure. The fundamental test process is a generic model that describes the main activities and tasks involved in testing. The fundamental test process consists of five phases: planning and control, analysis and design, implementation and execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, and test closure activities. Each phase has specific objectives, inputs, outputs, and deliverables. A detailed explanation of the fundamental test process can be found inA Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 13-241.
Question 108

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?
The process that ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process is D. Configuration management process. Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the integrity and consistency of all items of testware throughout the test process. Configuration management involves identifying, storing, controlling, tracking, and auditing all items of testware (such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, etc.) and their versions and changes. Configuration management helps to ensure that only authorized and approved items of testware are used for testing and that traceability can be maintained between them. A detailed explanation of configuration management can be found inA Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus, pages 101-1021.
Question 109

What is the value of static code analysis?
Static code analysis is a technique that examines the source code or other software artifacts without executing them, and can detect defects, vulnerabilities, code smells, and deviations from standards early in the development process1.According to the ISTQB syllabus, one of the benefits of static testing is early defect detection2, which can reduce the cost and effort of fixing them later.
Question 110

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?
(i) In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.
(ii) Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.
(iii) A use-case describes interactions between actors.
(iv) An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.
(v) Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.
(vi) Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.
Use-case testing is a technique that uses use-cases as a test basis to derive test cases2.A use-case is a description of interactions between actors and a system to achieve a goal2.An actor represents a type of user or anything that interacts with the system2.Use-cases are not the most common test basis for unit testing, as they are more suitable for higher levels of testing such as system or acceptance testing3.An actor is not always a human user, as it can also be another system or device2.Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios, which are sequences of actions and events that occur during a use-case execution2. Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components, as it can reveal missing or incorrect requirements, integration issues, and usability problems.
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