CTFL4: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level 4.0
ISTQB
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Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: 'Test Scope', 'Testing Communication', and 'Stakeholders'. The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:
Explanation:
The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within ''Test Scope'' rather than in the other two sections mentioned. The test scope defines the boundaries and limitations of the testing activities, such as the test items, the features to be tested, the features not to be tested, the test objectives, the test environment, the test resources, the test assumptions, the test risks, etc. The test scope helps to establish a common understanding of what is included and excluded from the testing, and to avoid ambiguity, confusion, or misunderstanding among the stakeholders. The other two sections, ''Testing Communication'' and ''Stakeholders'', are also important parts of a test plan, but they do not directly address the features of the test object. The testing communication describes the methods, frequency, and responsibilities for the communication and reporting of the testing progress, status, issues, and results. The stakeholders identify the roles and responsibilities of the people involved in or affected by the testing activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the customers, the users, etc.Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1
ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Plan, Test Scope2
Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II . The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III . Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.
Explanation:
An exit criterion is a condition that defines when a test activity has been completed or when a test phase can be concluded. An exit criterion can be based on various factors, such as:
I) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures. These are quantitative measures that indicate how many defects are present in the software product or how likely it is to fail under certain conditions. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the software product meets a certain level of quality or performance before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
III) Accuracy measures, such as code coverage, functionality coverage or risk coverage. These are quantitative measures that indicate how much of the software product has been tested in terms of its code, functionality or risk. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the test suite is adequate or complete before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
IV) Residual risks, such as lack of code coverage in certain areas, unresolved defects or unknown factors. These are qualitative measures that indicate the remaining risks or uncertainties associated with the software product after testing. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the residual risks are acceptable or manageable before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer. The following factor is not a valid exit criterion:
II) The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report. This is not a valid exit criterion, as it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the testing process or product. A test report is a document that summarizes the results and outcomes of a test activity or phase. A test report can be used as an input for deciding whether to exit a test activity or phase, but it is not a condition that defines when to exit. Verified
Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 13; Chapter 6, page 58-59.
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?
Explanation:
The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning. Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
(x \leq -100)
(-100 < x < 100)
(100 \leq x < 1000)
(x \geq 1000)
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.
For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.
For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.
For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.
1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40
The following diagram displays the logical dependencies between requirements and the individual requirement priorities. For example, 'R2->R3' means that R3 is dependent on R2. Priority is indicated by the number next to the letter ''P' i.e. P1 has a higher priority than P2.
Which one of the following options best describes the test execution sequence using both requirement dependency and priority
'Statement Testing' is part of;
Explanation:
Statement Testing is a type of white-box testing technique where the test cases are designed based on the implementation of the software, specifically aiming to execute every statement in the code at least once. This falls under the category of structure-based testing (also known as white-box testing), where the internal structure of the system is used to design test cases. Therefore, option D is correct.
Consider the following simplified version of a state transition diagram that specifies the behavior of a video poker game:
What Is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting In the 'Start' state and ending In the 'End' state?
Explanation:
The minimum number of test cases needed to cover every unique sequence of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting in the ''Start'' state and ending in the ''End'' state is 4. This is because there are 4 unique sequences of up to 3 states/2 transitions starting in the ''Start'' state and ending in the ''End'' state:
Start -> Bet -> End
Start -> Deal -> End
Start -> 1st Deal -> End
Start -> 2nd Deal -> EndReference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents.
While repotting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?
Explanation:
In defect reporting, the attribute that indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system is the severity. Severity reflects the seriousness of the defect in terms of its impact on the operation of the system, ranging from minor issues that do not significantly affect the system's functionality to critical defects that can cause system failure. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?
Explanation:
A defect report is a document that records the details of a defect found during testing. A defect report typically contains the following items:
Identifier: A unique identifier for the defect report
Summary: A concise summary of the defect
Description: A detailed description of the defect, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs
Severity: The degree of impact that the defect has on the system
Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the defect
Status: The current state of the defect, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
Resolution: The action taken to resolve the defect, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Out of these items, the one that is not needed to specify in a defect report is how to fix the defect. How to fix the defect is a technical solution that is usually determined by the developer who is assigned to resolve the defect. How to fix the defect is not part of the defect report, but rather part of the code change or patch that is delivered to fix the defect. The other items are needed to specify in a defect report, as they provide essential information for identifying, tracking and resolving defects. Verified
Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 32-33.
For the same financial institution in Question 12, with the same requirements and expectations, what would be the most likely investment values used in testing if two-point boundary value analysis is used to design test cases specific to the 13% interest rate equivalence partition?
Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects
[1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.
[ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,
[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.
[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
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