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Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III . Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V . Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

A.
I, III . Iv
A.
I, III . Iv
Answers
B.
II, v
B.
II, v
Answers
C.
I, Ill
C.
I, Ill
Answers
D.
II . IV, V
D.
II . IV, V
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The following statements about re-testing and regression testing are true:

I) Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed. Re-testing is a type of testing that verifies that a defect has been successfully resolved by executing a test case that previously failed due to that defect. Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed and delivered to ensure that it does not cause any new failures or side effects.

III) Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level. Re-testing and regression testing are not limited to a specific test level, but can be applied at any level depending on the context and objectives. For example, re-testing and regression testing can be performed at unit level, integration level, system level or acceptance level.

IV) Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing. Regression testing is a type of testing that verifies that previously tested software still performs correctly after changes. Regression testing may include various types of testing depending on the scope and purpose of the changes. For example, regression testing may include functional testing to check if the software meets its requirements, non-functional testing to check if the software meets its quality attributes, or structural testing to check if the software meets its design or code standards. The following statement about re-testing and regression testing is false:

II) Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed. Regression testing is not always necessary after a defect is fixed, as some defects may have a low impact or low likelihood of affecting other parts of the software. Regression testing should be performed after a defect is fixed only if there is a risk of introducing new defects or causing existing defects due to the changes made to fix the defect. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 19; Chapter 4, page 45.

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II . The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III . Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

A.
I, III, IV
A.
I, III, IV
Answers
B.
I, II, III
B.
I, II, III
Answers
C.
III, IV
C.
III, IV
Answers
D.
II, III, IV
D.
II, III, IV
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

An exit criterion is a condition that defines when a test activity has been completed or when a test phase can be concluded. An exit criterion can be based on various factors, such as:

I) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures. These are quantitative measures that indicate how many defects are present in the software product or how likely it is to fail under certain conditions. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the software product meets a certain level of quality or performance before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.

III) Accuracy measures, such as code coverage, functionality coverage or risk coverage. These are quantitative measures that indicate how much of the software product has been tested in terms of its code, functionality or risk. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the test suite is adequate or complete before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.

IV) Residual risks, such as lack of code coverage in certain areas, unresolved defects or unknown factors. These are qualitative measures that indicate the remaining risks or uncertainties associated with the software product after testing. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the residual risks are acceptable or manageable before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer. The following factor is not a valid exit criterion:

II) The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report. This is not a valid exit criterion, as it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the testing process or product. A test report is a document that summarizes the results and outcomes of a test activity or phase. A test report can be used as an input for deciding whether to exit a test activity or phase, but it is not a condition that defines when to exit. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 13; Chapter 6, page 58-59.

Which of the following s the most correct statement about state testing techniques?

A.
Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution
A.
Static techniques can be used before all code is ready for execution
Answers
B.
Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.
B.
Static techniques find more detects then dynamic techniques.
Answers
C.
Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.
C.
Static techniques can be used by inexperienced users.
Answers
D.
Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
D.
Static techniques are always cheaper than dynamic techniques.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

State testing techniques are a type of dynamic testing techniques that are based on the behavior of the system under test for different input conditions and events. Dynamic testing techniques require the system to be executed with test cases, whereas static testing techniques do not. Static testing techniques can be applied before the code is ready for execution, such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and static analysis.Static testing techniques can help find defects early in the development process, improve the quality of the code, and reduce the cost and effort of dynamic testing.Reference= ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 281; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292

A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

A.
The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.
A.
The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.
Answers
B.
The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.
B.
The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.
Answers
C.
The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.
C.
The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.
Answers
D.
The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development
D.
The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test. It includes activities such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and analysis of documents, code, and models. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, before they become more expensive and difficult to fix in later stages. Static testing can also improve the quality of the software or system by preventing defects from being introduced in the first place. Static testing can complement dynamic testing, which involves executing the software or system under test and checking the results against expected outcomes. Dynamic testing can find defects that static testing may miss, such as performance, usability, or integration issues. However, dynamic testing alone is not sufficient to ensure quality, as it may not cover all possible scenarios, inputs, or paths. Therefore, a test manager who decides to skip static testing is making a wrong decision, as he or she is ignoring the benefits of static testing and relying solely on dynamic testing, which may not be effective or efficient enough to find and prevent defects.Reference= ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.1.1, page 14; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, page 36; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 3, page 9.

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

A.
Test design specification
A.
Test design specification
Answers
B.
Project plan
B.
Project plan
Answers
C.
Requirements specification
C.
Requirements specification
Answers
D.
Test plan
D.
Test plan
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Test exit criteria are the conditions that must be fulfilled before concluding a particular testing phase.These criteria act as a checkpoint to assess whether we have achieved the testing objectives and are done with testing1. Test exit criteria are typically defined in the test plan document, which is one of the outputs of the test planning phase. The test plan document describes the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of the testing activities.It also identifies the test items, the features to be tested, the testing tasks, the risks, and the test deliverables2.According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, the test plan document should include the following information related to the test exit criteria3:

The criteria for evaluating test completion, such as the percentage of test cases executed, the percentage of test coverage achieved, the number and severity of defects found and fixed, the quality and reliability of the software product, and the stakeholder satisfaction.

The criteria for evaluating test process improvement, such as the adherence to the test strategy, the efficiency and effectiveness of the testing activities, the lessons learned and best practices identified, and the recommendations for future improvements.

Therefore, the test plan document is the most appropriate test document to find the test exit criteria described. The other options, such as test design specification, project plan, and requirements specification, are not directly related to the test exit criteria.The test design specification describes the test cases and test procedures for a specific test level or test type3.The project plan describes the overall objectives, scope, assumptions, risks, and deliverables of the software project4.The requirements specification describes the functional and non-functional requirements of the software product5. None of these documents specify the conditions for ending the testing process or evaluating the testing outcomes.Reference=ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0,Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing | Baeldung on Computer Science,Entry And Exit Criteria In Software Testing - Rishabh Software,Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing Life Cycle - STLC [2022 Updated] - Testsigma Blog,ISTQB releases Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0 (CTFL).

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

A.
-100; 100:1000; 1001
A.
-100; 100:1000; 1001
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B.
-500; 0; 100; 1000
B.
-500; 0; 100; 1000
Answers
C.
-99; 99:101; 1001
C.
-99; 99:101; 1001
Answers
D.
-1000; -100; 100; 1000
D.
-1000; -100; 100; 1000
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning. Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:

(x \leq -100)

(-100 < x < 100)

(100 \leq x < 1000)

(x \geq 1000)

Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:

For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.

For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.

For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.

For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.

So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.

1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38

2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39

: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40

Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?

A.
Can't be determined
A.
Can't be determined
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B.
Covering all transitions at least once
B.
Covering all transitions at least once
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C.
Covering only start and end states
C.
Covering only start and end states
Answers
D.
Covering all states at least once
D.
Covering all states at least once
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered.Reference= CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page 49-50.

Which of the following statements about testware are correct?

I When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released

II All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management

III . The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance

IV The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware

A.
II, Ill
A.
II, Ill
Answers
B.
I, Ill
B.
I, Ill
Answers
C.
I, IV
C.
I, IV
Answers
D.
II, IV
D.
II, IV
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Testware is a term that refers to all artifacts produced during the testing process, such as test plans, test cases, test scripts, test data, test results, defect reports, etc. The following statements about testware are correct:

II) All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management. Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management applies to all testware, as it helps ensure their quality and consistency, track their changes and defects, control their versions and access rights, and link them to other artifacts.

III) The testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance. Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing requires testware from previous testing activities or phases, such as test cases, test data, test results, etc. Therefore, the testware at the end of the project should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance testing, such as support team or maintenance team. The following statements about testware are incorrect:

I) When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released. This statement is incorrect, as some testware resources may still be needed for future testing activities or phases, such as maintenance testing or regression testing. Therefore, when closing the test activities, some testware resources should be archived and stored for future use, while others can be uninstalled and released.

IV) The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. This statement is incorrect, as the testers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware. The testers should ensure that they have access to all necessary testware resources and that they are installed and configured properly before starting the test execution. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 58-61.

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

A.
Document incidents on a large board in the lab
A.
Document incidents on a large board in the lab
Answers
B.
Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
B.
Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
Answers
C.
Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
C.
Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
Answers
D.
Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
D.
Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident management tool is a software tool that supports recording and tracking incidents throughout their life cycle. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. The best option for this case is to manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet. This option has several advantages over other options:

It is low cost, as it does not require purchasing any additional software or hardware.

It is easy to implement within a week, as it does not require installing or configuring any complex software or hardware.

It is accessible and transparent, as it can be viewed and updated by anyone who has access to the intranet.

It is structured and organized, as it can store and display various information about incidents, such as identifier, summary, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, etc. The other options are not suitable for this case, as they have several disadvantages over the chosen option:

Documenting incidents on a large board in the lab is not a good option, as it is not accessible or transparent to anyone who is not physically present in the lab. It is also not structured or organized, as it may not store or display all the necessary information about incidents.

Purchasing and deploying an incident management tool is not a good option, as it is not low cost or easy to implement within a week. It may require spending a significant amount of money and time on acquiring, installing and configuring the software or hardware.

Managing the incidents through emails and phone calls is not a good option, as it is not structured or organized. It may lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information about incidents. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.

Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

A.
An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
A.
An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
Answers
B.
The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.
B.
The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.
Answers
C.
An inspection can be performed by peers.
C.
An inspection can be performed by peers.
Answers
D.
An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria
D.
An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:

B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:

A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.

C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.

D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.

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