ExamGecko
Home Home / ISTQB / CTFL4

ISTQB CTFL4 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 3

Question list
Search
Search

Related questions











Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

A.
Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents
A.
Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents
Answers
B.
Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
B.
Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
Answers
C.
Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects
C.
Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects
Answers
D.
Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items
D.
Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A dynamic analysis tool is a tool that performs analysis of a software product based on its behavior during execution. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor various aspects of a program's run-time performance, such as memory usage, CPU load, response time, or resource leaks. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program, which can help detect defects such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or memory corruption. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents, as this is a function of a test management tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects, as this is a function of a debugging tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items, as this is a function of a configuration management tool. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 6, page 56-57.

Which sequence of state transition stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting me life-cycle of a defect?

A.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S4
A.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S4
Answers
B.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1
B.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5^>S1
Answers
C.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
C.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
Answers
D.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
D.
S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The figure depicts the life-cycle of a defect using state transition testing. State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions. The figure shows six states (S0 to S5) and seven transitions (T0 to T6). The correct sequence of state transitions that follows the figure is S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3. This sequence represents the following scenario:

S0: The defect is not yet detected (initial state).

T0: The defect is detected by testing (event).

S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).

T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).

S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).

T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).

S3: The defect is verified by testing (state).

T5: The testing fails to confirm that the defect is fixed (event).

S5: The defect is rejected by testing (state).

T6: The defect is reassigned to a developer for fixing (event).

S1: The defect is reported and registered (state).

T1: The defect is assigned to a developer for fixing (event).

S2: The defect is being fixed by the developer (state).

T2: The developer fixes the defect and delivers a new version (event).

S3: The defect is verified by testing (state). The other sequences are incorrect, as they do not follow the transitions shown in the figure. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 40-41.

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

A.
EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
A.
EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
Answers
B.
EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
B.
EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
Answers
C.
EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
C.
EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
Answers
D.
EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
D.
EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after non-experience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

A.
It is not a defect
A.
It is not a defect
Answers
B.
Defect
B.
Defect
Answers
C.
Error
C.
Error
Answers
D.
Failure
D.
Failure
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits. A failure is observable by the software users or other stakeholders. A failure is caused by one or more defects in the software. In this case, the software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of a failure, as it deviates from the stated requirement and affects the user experience. It is not a defect, which is a flaw in the software that causes the failure. It is not an error, which is a human action that produces an incorrect result. It is not a non-defect, as it clearly violates a specified requirement. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 4.

Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

A.
Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.
A.
Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.
Answers
B.
Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.
B.
Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.
Answers
C.
A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.
C.
A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.
Answers
D.
Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.
D.
Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Independent testing is testing performed by a person or group that is independent of the development team. Independent testing can have various degrees of independence, ranging from testers who are part of the same organization as developers to testers who are external contractors or consultants. Independent testing can have various benefits, such as reducing bias, increasing objectivity, improving quality, or providing different perspectives. Independent testing is not necessary because developers don't know any testing, as this is a wrong and disrespectful statement. Developers can perform various types of testing, such as unit testing, component testing, or integration testing. However, independent testing can complement developer testing by providing additional levels of verification and validation, such as system testing, acceptance testing, or non-functional testing. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 16-17.

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

A.
Retirement of the software or system
A.
Retirement of the software or system
Answers
B.
Modifications to a released software or system
B.
Modifications to a released software or system
Answers
C.
Migration of the system data to a replacement system
C.
Migration of the system data to a replacement system
Answers
D.
Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase
D.
Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Maintenance testing is testing performed on a software product after delivery to correct defects or improve performance or other attributes. Maintenance testing can be triggered by various situations, such as modifications to a released software or system, migration of the system data to a replacement system, or retirement of the software or system. Maintenance testing is not executed when there is an update to the maintainability requirements during the development phase, as this is not a maintenance situation but rather a change request that should be handled by the development process. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 18-19.

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

A.
Planning the review
A.
Planning the review
Answers
B.
Determines if the review objectives have been met
B.
Determines if the review objectives have been met
Answers
C.
Decide on the execution of reviews
C.
Decide on the execution of reviews
Answers
D.
Allocate time for review
D.
Allocate time for review
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:

Planning the review (correct responsibility)

Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility)

Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility)

Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to the manager role. Verified

Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.

Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?

A.
Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.
A.
Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.
Answers
B.
The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.
B.
The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.
Answers
C.
The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.
C.
The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.
Answers
D.
Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.
D.
Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Acceptance testing is a level of testing performed to verify that a software product meets the agreed acceptance criteria and is acceptable for delivery. Acceptance testing is often performed by the customers or system users, who are the main stakeholders of the software product. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects, as defects should have been detected and fixed in earlier levels of testing. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release, unless there are any changes or fixes that require re-testing. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually part of acceptance testing, as these are important aspects of system reliability and security that affect the customer satisfaction and trust. Therefore, statement A is not correct, while statements B, C and D are correct. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 20-21.

Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

A.
To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.
A.
To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.
Answers
B.
To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.
B.
To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.
Answers
C.
To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.
C.
To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.
Answers
D.
To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.
D.
To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Risk management is a process that identifies, analyzes, evaluates and mitigates risks in a software project. Risks are factors that may negatively affect the quality, schedule, budget or scope of a software project. The main goals of risk management in a software project are to reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact. This can be achieved by applying various strategies, such as avoidance, transfer, reduction or acceptance. Risk management does not aim to increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs, as this may not be feasible or realistic. Risk management does not aim to increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers, as these are secondary or indirect outcomes. Risk management does not aim to control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies, as these are specific types of risks that may not apply to all projects. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 14-15.

A team's test strategy was to invest equal effort in testing each of a system's modules. After running one test cycle, it turned out that most of the critical bugs were detected in one of the system's modules.

Which testing principal suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle?

A.
Pesticide Paradox
A.
Pesticide Paradox
Answers
B.
Early testing
B.
Early testing
Answers
C.
Absence-of-errors fallacy
C.
Absence-of-errors fallacy
Answers
D.
Defect clustering
D.
Defect clustering
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Defect clustering is a testing principle that states that a small number of modules contain most of the defects detected during pre-release testing, or are responsible for most of the operational failures. Defect clustering can be explained by Pareto's principle (also known as the 80-20 rule), which states that approximately 80% of the problems are found in 20% of the modules. Defect clustering suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, as it implies that more effort should be allocated to test the modules that have shown high defect density or criticality. Pesticide paradox is another testing principle that states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually they will no longer find any new defects. Pesticide paradox suggests a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but not based on defect clustering, but rather on test diversity and coverage. Early testing is a testing principle that states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development life cycle and should be focused on defined objectives. Early testing does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a proactive approach to prevent defects from occurring or propagating. Absence-of-errors fallacy is a testing principle that states that finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users' needs and expectations. Absence-of-errors fallacy does not suggest a change to the current test strategy for the next test cycle, but rather a focus on quality attributes and user requirements. Verified

Reference:A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 1, page 9-10.

Total 288 questions
Go to page: of 29