ISTQB CTFL4 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 13
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Question 121

While repotting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?
Explanation:
In defect reporting, the attribute that indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system is the severity. Severity reflects the seriousness of the defect in terms of its impact on the operation of the system, ranging from minor issues that do not significantly affect the system's functionality to critical defects that can cause system failure. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Question 122

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?
Explanation:
An incident report during testing should focus on factual observations of failures or defects in the system, including their impacts and how they deviate from expected results. Options A, C, and D describe specific issues that are directly related to the system's behavior or performance and are suitable for inclusion in an incident report. Option B, which describes the user interface as 'complicated and confusing' and relates to the tester's personal difficulty in following the test script, is more subjective and relates to the tester's experience rather than an objective observation of a system failure. Therefore, option B is the least appropriate for an incident report.
Question 123

Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?
Explanation:
The key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool lies in their approaches and scope. A peer review is a manual inspection of the code by peers or colleagues, focusing not only on the technical aspects of the code but also on other elements such as design, compliance with standards, and maintainability. Peer reviews can identify defects, suggest improvements, and ensure that the code adheres to best practices and team standards.
On the other hand, static analysis is an automated process performed by tools designed to analyze the code without executing it. These tools can detect potential issues such as syntax errors, vulnerabilities, and code smells based on predefined rules and patterns. While static analysis is technically focused, it lacks the broader perspective that human reviewers can provide, such as evaluating the code's maintainability or adherence to project-specific standards. Therefore, static analysis targets the code technically, whereas peer review encompasses a wider range of aspects, making option B the correct answer.
Question 124

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage
IF Gender = Boy
If Age > 3 AND Age < 5
Shoe Size = 1
ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7
Shoe Size = 2
ENDIF
ELSE
IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5
Shoe Size = 0
ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7
Shoe Size = 1
ENDIF
ENDIF
Explanation:
To achieve 100% statement coverage, we need to design test cases that ensure every statement in the given pseudo-code is executed at least once. Analyzing the pseudo-code, we notice that there are conditions based on two variables: Gender and Age. To cover all statements, we need to consider the paths that lead to each assignment of the Shoe Size variable.
Gender = Boy, Age <= 3 (Shoe Size assignment is not reached, but the condition is evaluated)
Gender = Boy, Age > 3 AND Age < 5 (Shoe Size = 1)
Gender = Boy, Age >= 5 AND Age < 7 (Shoe Size = 2)
Gender != Boy, Age <= 3 (Again, Shoe Size assignment is not reached, but the condition is evaluated)
Gender != Boy, Age > 3 AND Age < 5 (Shoe Size = 0)
Gender != Boy, Age >= 5 AND Age < 7 (Shoe Size = 1)
However, upon closer inspection, we see that tests 1 and 4 do not contribute to statement coverage as they do not lead to a Shoe Size assignment. Therefore, we only need 4 test cases to achieve 100% statement coverage, making option B the correct answer.
Question 125

The following open incident report provided:
Date: 01.01.01
Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in 'Attention' instead of 'Ready'.
Severity: High
Life Cycle: Integration
Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?
I . Identification or configuration of the application
II . The name of the developer
III . Recommendation of the developer
IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button
Explanation:
In an incident report, essential details provide context and facilitate the investigation and resolution of the incident. The missing elements in the given incident report are:
I . Identification or configuration of the application: This detail is crucial as it specifies which version or configuration of the application is affected, helping in reproducing the issue. IV . The actions and/or conditions that came before pressing the button: Understanding the sequence of actions leading to the issue is vital for replicating and diagnosing the problem.
The name of the developer (II) and the recommendation of the developer (III) are not typically included in an incident report as they do not contribute to identifying or resolving the incident. The focus is on the incident's details, reproduction steps, and the system's state rather than on personnel or proposed solutions at this stage. Therefore, option B, which includes both I and IV, is the correct answer.
Question 126

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?
Explanation:
State transition testing is a black-box testing technique used to analyze the behavior of a system by examining the transitions between different states in response to events. In state transition testing, a state table or diagram is used to represent the states of a system and the transitions between these states triggered by events.
Option D is correct because in state transition testing, all transitions between states should be explicitly shown in the state table. This includes valid transitions that the system is expected to make under normal operation and, where relevant, invalid transitions that should be tested to ensure the system handles unexpected or erroneous inputs gracefully. The state table provides a comprehensive view of how the system should behave, making it possible to create tests that cover all defined transitions.
Question 127

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: 'Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?
Explanation:
Quality Assurance (QA) activities are focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled through planned and systematic processes. These activities are preventive in nature, aimed at ensuring quality is built into the product from the beginning.
Requirements elicitation (A) is part of the requirements engineering process and is concerned with gathering the needs and conditions to meet for a new or altered product.
Defect analysis (B) can be part of QA activities as it involves analyzing defects to prevent them in future development cycles.
Functional Testing (C) and Performance Testing (D) are types of dynamic testing, which are actually Quality Control activities rather than Quality Assurance. They are concerned with the identification of defects in the product, not with the processes to prevent defects.
Since the question asks for an activity that is NOT part of Quality Assurance, options A and B are incorrect because they can be part of QA activities. Between C and D, while both are dynamic testing activities, Functional Testing (C) is more directly related to verifying the functionality against specified requirements, which is more aligned with Quality Control. Therefore, C is the best answer.
Question 128

Which of the following statements about testing in the context of an agile (iterative-incremental) development model is correct?
Explanation:
In the context of agile (iterative-incremental) development models, testing is integrated into the development process and occurs continuously throughout the lifecycle of the project. Agile testing emphasizes adaptability and the need for feedback at various stages of development.
Option C is correct because regression testing is indeed necessary whenever a new increment is added to the existing system. Agile development often involves frequent changes and additions to the codebase, which can potentially introduce new defects into previously tested code. Regression testing ensures that new changes have not adversely affected existing functionality.
Options A, B, and D present misconceptions about agile testing:
A is incorrect because, in agile, all types of testing (unit, integration, system, acceptance) are important and occur throughout the iteration, not just unit and acceptance tests.
B is incorrect because agile methodologies advocate for continuous integration and testing, where development and testing activities overlap and support each other throughout an iteration.
D is incorrect because agile methodologies encourage a wide range of testing types, including both functional and non-functional, as well as exploratory testing, to ensure a comprehensive quality assessment.
Question 129

Which of the following is the main benefit of a configuration management of testware?
Explanation:
Configuration management of testware is a critical aspect of maintaining the integrity and traceability of test assets throughout the testing lifecycle. The main benefit of configuration management is to ensure that all testware items, such as test cases, test scripts, test data, and test results, are systematically identified, version controlled, and tracked for changes in relation to each other.
Option C accurately describes this benefit. By applying configuration management principles to testware, teams can manage changes to test assets efficiently, ensuring that the testware remains consistent, up-to-date, and aligned with the version of the software under test. This control mechanism facilitates the reproducibility of tests, enhances the reliability of testing activities, and supports traceability from requirements through to defects.
Options A, B, and D describe other aspects of test management and testing processes but do not capture the core benefit of configuration management of testware, which is centered on the systematic control and tracking of testware items.
Question 130

Which of the following definitions is NOT true?
Explanation:
Test Management tools are designed to support the planning, execution, and monitoring of the testing process. They provide features for managing test cases, test runs, tracking defects, and reporting on testing activities. However, the statement in option C describes Test Management tools as monitoring and reporting on the system's behavior during testing activities, which is not accurate. Test Management tools focus on the testing process itself rather than on the behavior of the system under test.
Test data preparation tools (A) indeed create and manage test data for use during test execution.
Test execution tools (B) automate the execution of test cases and the comparison of actual outcomes against expected results.
Test comparators (D) are tools that compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes, highlighting discrepancies.
Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it inaccurately describes the function of Test Management tools.
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