CompTIA CV0-004 Practice Test - Questions Answers
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Question 1
Given the following command:
Sdocker pull images.comptia.org/user1/myimage:latest
Which of the following correctly identifies images.comptia.org?
Explanation:
In the Docker pull command given, images.comptia.org represents the image registry. A Docker image registry is a collection of repositories that host Docker images. It is where images are stored and organized, and from where they can be pulled for deployment.
Reference: Docker and container management concepts, including image registries, are part of the cloud services understanding in the CompTIA Cloud+ curriculum.
Question 2
Once a change has been made to templates, which of the following commands should a cloud architect use next to deploy an laaS platform?
Explanation:
After making changes to templates, a cloud architect should use the git push command to deploy an IaaS platform. This command is used to upload the local repository content to a remote repository, making the new or changed templates available for the next deployment.
Reference: Version control practices and commands, such as using git for IaaS template management, are covered under the best practices for cloud deployments in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
Question 3
Which of the following are best practices when working with a source control system? (Select two).
Explanation:
Best practices when working with a source control system include merging code often to ensure that changes from different team members are integrated regularly, reducing integration issues. Committing code often is also recommended to save small changes frequently, which helps in tracking changes and resolving issues more effectively.
Reference: Source control system best practices are part of the software development and deployment guidelines discussed in the CompTIA Cloud+ examination objectives.
Question 4
A company is developing a new web application that requires a relational database management system with minimal operational overhead. Which of the following should the company choose?
Explanation:
For a new web application that requires a relational database management system with minimal operational overhead, the company should choose a managed SQL database on the cloud. Managed databases provide automated backups, patching, and other management tasks, reducing the administrative burden.
Reference: The use of managed services, like managed databases, to minimize operational overhead is a strategic decision in cloud computing covered in CompTIA Cloud+.
Question 5
Which of the following is the most cost-effective and efficient strategy when migrating to the cloud?
Explanation:
The most cost-effective and efficient strategy when migrating to the cloud can often be to 'retire' or turn off legacy systems that are no longer useful or necessary. This avoids spending resources on migrating and maintaining systems that do not provide value in a cloud environment.
Reference: Cloud migration strategies, including retiring outdated systems, are part of the decision-making process for cloud adoption in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification material.
Question 6
A list of CVEs was identified on a web server. The systems administrator decides to close the ports and disable weak TLS ciphers. Which of the following describes this vulnerability management stage?
Explanation:
Closing the ports and disabling weak TLS ciphers as a response to a list of identified CVEs (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) describes the vulnerability management stage of 'remediation'. This stage involves taking actions to resolve vulnerabilities and mitigate potential risks.
Reference: Vulnerability management stages, including remediation efforts, are a key aspect of the security measures discussed in CompTIA Cloud+.
Question 7
A company uses containers stored in Docker Hub to deploy workloads (or its laaS infrastructure. The development team releases changes to the containers several times per hour. Which of the following should a cloud engineer do to prevent the proprietary code from being exposed to third parties?
Explanation:
To prevent proprietary code from being exposed to third parties, a cloud engineer should use private repositories for the containers. Private repositories ensure that access to container images is restricted and controlled, unlike public repositories where images are accessible to anyone.
Reference: The concept of using private repositories for protecting proprietary code is part of cloud security best practices, which is covered under the Governance, Risk, Compliance, and Security domain of the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
Question 8
Which of the following is an auditing procedure that ensures service providers securely manage the data to protect the interests of the organization and the privacy of its clients?
Explanation:
SOC2 (Service Organization Control 2) is an auditing procedure that ensures service providers securely manage data to protect the interests of an organization and the privacy of its clients. SOC2 is specifically designed for service providers storing customer data in the cloud, making it pertinent for data management and privacy.
Reference: SOC2 and its role in auditing and ensuring secure data management by cloud service providers are part of the compliance standards and regulations included in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification material.
Question 9
A cloud engineer wants to replace the current on-premises. unstructured data storage with a solution in the cloud. The new solution needs to be cost-effective and highly scalable. Which of the following types of storage would be best to use?
Explanation:
Object storage is ideal for cost-effective and highly scalable unstructured data. It allows for the storage of massive amounts of unstructured data in a flat namespace and is not constrained by the rigid structures of file or block storage. Object storage is highly durable and designed for high levels of scalability and accessibility.
Reference: The suitability of object storage for unstructured data and scalability is a part of cloud storage technologies covered in CompTIA Cloud+ materials.
Question 10
A security analyst reviews the daily logs and notices the following suspicious activity:
The analyst investigates the firewall logs and identities the following:
Which of the following steps should the security analyst take next to resolve this issue? (Select two).
Explanation:
Given the suspicious activity and Kali Linux's association with penetration testing and hacking tools, the security analyst should block all inbound connections on port 4444, as it is commonly used for malicious purposes, and block the IP address that's potentially the source of the intrusion. Additionally, checking the running processes on John Smith's computer is crucial to determine if a backdoor or unauthorized connection has been established.
Reference: Incident response and threat mitigation steps such as these are part of the security protocols discussed in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.
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