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An IT security team wants to ensure that the correct parties are informed when a specific user account is signed in. Which of the following would most likely allow an administrator to address this concern?

A.
Creating an alert based on user sign-in criteria
A.
Creating an alert based on user sign-in criteria
Answers
B.
Aggregating user sign-in logs from all systems
B.
Aggregating user sign-in logs from all systems
Answers
C.
Enabling the collection of user sign-in logs
C.
Enabling the collection of user sign-in logs
Answers
D.
Configuring the retention of all sign-in logs
D.
Configuring the retention of all sign-in logs
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

To ensure that the correct parties are informed when a specific user account is signed in, the best action is to create an alert based on user sign-in criteria. This alert can notify administrators or security personnel when the specified event occurs.

Reference: Security monitoring and alerting are critical components of managing cloud environments securely, as discussed in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.

An on-premises data center is located in an earthquake-prone location. The workload consists of real-time, online transaction processing. Which ot the following data protection strategies should be used to back up on-premises data to the cloud while also being cost effective?

A.
Remote replication for failover
A.
Remote replication for failover
Answers
B.
A copy that is RAID 1 protected on spinning drives in an on-premises private cloud
B.
A copy that is RAID 1 protected on spinning drives in an on-premises private cloud
Answers
C.
A full backup to on-site tape libraries in a private cloud
C.
A full backup to on-site tape libraries in a private cloud
Answers
D.
Air-gapped protection to provide cyber resiliency
D.
Air-gapped protection to provide cyber resiliency
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Remote replication for failover is the data protection strategy that should be used to back up on-premises data to the cloud for an earthquake-prone location. It provides real-time or near-real-time copying of data to a remote location, which can be quickly activated in case the primary site fails.

Reference: Disaster recovery strategies, including remote replication for failover, are part of the cloud-based data protection methods covered in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification.

Which of the following will best reduce the cost of running workloads while maintaining the same performance? (Select two).

A.
Instance size
A.
Instance size
Answers
B.
Tagging
B.
Tagging
Answers
C.
Reserved resources model
C.
Reserved resources model
Answers
D.
Spot instance model
D.
Spot instance model
Answers
E.
Pay-as-you-go model
E.
Pay-as-you-go model
Answers
F.
Dedicated host model
F.
Dedicated host model
Answers
Suggested answer: C, D

Explanation:

The Reserved resources model offers cost savings for committed use over a long term, which can reduce costs while maintaining performance for predictable workloads. The Spot instance model allows users to take advantage of unused capacity at lower prices, offering significant cost savings, though with the possibility of instances being terminated when demand rises. Both models can be strategically used to optimize costs without compromising performance.

Which of the following is a difference between a SAN and a NAS?

A.
A SAN works only with fiber-based networks.
A.
A SAN works only with fiber-based networks.
Answers
B.
A SAN works with any Ethernet-based network.
B.
A SAN works with any Ethernet-based network.
Answers
C.
A NAS uses a faster protocol than a SAN
C.
A NAS uses a faster protocol than a SAN
Answers
D.
A NAS uses a slower protocol than a SAN.
D.
A NAS uses a slower protocol than a SAN.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A NAS (Network Attached Storage) typically uses file-level protocols such as NFS or SMB, which are generally considered slower and less efficient than the block-level protocols used by SANs (Storage Area Networks), such as iSCSI or Fibre Channel. SANs are designed for high performance and low latency, making them more suitable for applications requiring fast and efficient storage access.

A cloud engineer is troubleshooting an application that consumes multiple third-party REST APIs. The application is randomly expenenang high latency. Which of the following would best help determine the source of the latency?

A.
Configuring centralized logging to analyze HTTP requests
A.
Configuring centralized logging to analyze HTTP requests
Answers
B.
Running a flow log on the network to analyze the packets
B.
Running a flow log on the network to analyze the packets
Answers
C.
Configuring an API gateway to track all incoming requests
C.
Configuring an API gateway to track all incoming requests
Answers
D.
Enabling tracing to detect HTTP response times and codes
D.
Enabling tracing to detect HTTP response times and codes
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Enabling tracing in the application can help determine the source of high latency by providing detailed information on HTTP request and response times, as well as response codes. This can identify which API calls are experiencing delays and contribute to overall application latency, allowing for targeted troubleshooting and optimization.

A cloud architect attempts to modify a protected branch but is unable to do so. The architect receives an error indicating the action cannot be completed. Which of the following should the architect try instead''

A.
Adding a new remote
A.
Adding a new remote
Answers
B.
Creating a pull request
B.
Creating a pull request
Answers
C.
Merging the branch
C.
Merging the branch
Answers
D.
Rebasing the branch
D.
Rebasing the branch
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

When unable to modify a protected branch directly, the recommended approach is to create a pull request. This allows changes to be reviewed and approved by authorized personnel before being merged into the protected branch, maintaining code integrity and compliance with the project's workflow and policies.

A cloud administrator deploys new VMs in a cluster and discovers they are getting IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.
The scope has been exhausted.
A.
The scope has been exhausted.
Answers
B.
The network is overlapping.
B.
The network is overlapping.
Answers
C.
The VLAN is missing.
C.
The VLAN is missing.
Answers
D.
The NAT is Improperly configured.
D.
The NAT is Improperly configured.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16 are Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) addresses, which devices assign themselves when they are configured to obtain an IP automatically but are unable to reach a DHCP server to get one. The most likely cause for VMs in a cluster to receive APIPA addresses is the exhaustion of the DHCP scope, meaning there are no more available IP addresses in the DHCP range to be assigned.

Which of the following integration systems would best reduce unnecessary network traffic by allowing data to travel bidirectionally and facilitating real-time results for developers who need to display critical information within applications?

A.
REST API
A.
REST API
Answers
B.
RPC
B.
RPC
Answers
C.
GraphQL
C.
GraphQL
Answers
D.
Web sockets
D.
Web sockets
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Web sockets provide a full-duplex communication channel over a single, long-lived connection, allowing data to flow bidirectionally between a client and a server. This is ideal for real-time applications where developers need to display critical information without unnecessary network overhead, as it reduces the need for repetitive HTTP requests and allows for more efficient, instantaneous data updates and interactions.

A cloud security analyst is looking for existing security vulnerabilities on software applications. Which of the following describes this vulnerability management phase?

A.
Analyze
A.
Analyze
Answers
B.
Report
B.
Report
Answers
C.
Remediation
C.
Remediation
Answers
D.
identification
D.
identification
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The phase of vulnerability management that involves looking for existing security vulnerabilities on software applications is known as 'Identification'. This step precedes analysis, reporting, and remediation, focusing on discovering known and unknown vulnerabilities within the system or software to assess the security posture effectively.

Which of the following can reduce the risk of CI/CD pipelines leaking secrets?

A.
Protected Git branches
A.
Protected Git branches
Answers
B.
Use of a VM instead of containers
B.
Use of a VM instead of containers
Answers
C.
Private image repositories
C.
Private image repositories
Answers
D.
Canary tests
D.
Canary tests
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Protected Git branches help reduce the risk of CI/CD pipelines leaking secrets by imposing restrictions on who can commit to the branches, enforce status checks before merging, and prevent unauthorized access or changes to sensitive information, such as API keys, passwords, and secret tokens. This ensures that only approved changes can be made to the codebase, and sensitive information is safeguarded.

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