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Which of the following controls would most likely prevent fraud related to the overpayment of vendors?

A.

Require supervisory review of all invoices and cash disbursements exceeding a stated threshold.

A.

Require supervisory review of all invoices and cash disbursements exceeding a stated threshold.

Answers
B.

Require the matching of a purchase order, receiving report, and invoice before payment.

B.

Require the matching of a purchase order, receiving report, and invoice before payment.

Answers
C.

Require all checks to be signed by more than one person.

C.

Require all checks to be signed by more than one person.

Answers
D.

Require all invoices to be paid within 30 days by check only.

D.

Require all invoices to be paid within 30 days by check only.

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Requiring the matching of a purchase order (PO), receiving report, and invoice before payment is a robust control designed to prevent overpayment and other types of fraudulent activities related to vendor payments. This control ensures that:

The goods or services invoiced were actually ordered (verified by the purchase order).

The goods or services were received (verified by the receiving report).

The invoice amount matches the agreed-upon terms and quantities (verified by the invoice).

This three-way match process helps prevent discrepancies such as overpayments, duplicate payments, or payments for goods/services not received. By ensuring all three documents align, it mitigates the risk of fraud and errors in vendor payments.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Standards and Practice Advisories.

COSO Internal Control -- Integrated Framework, specifically on control activities.

'Internal Auditing: Assurance & Advisory Services' by IIA, Chapter on Procurement and Accounts Payable Controls.

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor identified that a developer of the organization's enterprise resource planning (ERP) system had intentionally modified the production code to commit a fraudulent transaction. Which control activity should be implemented to prevent such issues in the future?

A.

Segregate duties between code development and migrating changes into production.

A.

Segregate duties between code development and migrating changes into production.

Answers
B.

Conduct fraud training for the IT team responsible for the ERP system.

B.

Conduct fraud training for the IT team responsible for the ERP system.

Answers
C.

Penalize the developer who committed the fraud by terminating employment.

C.

Penalize the developer who committed the fraud by terminating employment.

Answers
D.

Restrict developers' access to the ERP system's test environment.

D.

Restrict developers' access to the ERP system's test environment.

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Segregating duties between code development and migrating changes into production is a critical control to prevent fraudulent activities by developers. This control ensures that no single individual has the ability to develop code and deploy it to the production environment without oversight. Key benefits include:

Reducing the risk of unauthorized or malicious code changes.

Ensuring that changes are reviewed and tested by a different team before deployment.

Increasing accountability and transparency in the software development lifecycle.

By implementing this control, organizations can prevent developers from committing fraud or making unapproved changes to the ERP system, thereby protecting the integrity and security of the system.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Standards and Practice Advisories.

COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies) framework.

'Internal Auditing: Assurance & Advisory Services' by IIA, Chapter on IT General Controls and Segregation of Duties.

According to IIA guidance, a new internal auditor is expected to possess which of the following competencies?

A.

Technical industry-specific expertise.

A.

Technical industry-specific expertise.

Answers
B.

Expertise in cybersecurity, an area of increasing risk.

B.

Expertise in cybersecurity, an area of increasing risk.

Answers
C.

Knowledge of IT risks and controls.

C.

Knowledge of IT risks and controls.

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D.

Knowledge of forensic accounting.

D.

Knowledge of forensic accounting.

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

According to IIA guidance, a new internal auditor is expected to possess a broad understanding of IT risks and controls. This competency is crucial because:

IT risks and controls are integral to the overall control environment and impact all areas of an organization.

Knowledge of IT risks and controls enables auditors to assess the effectiveness of controls over information systems, data security, and technology infrastructure.

As technology evolves, internal auditors must understand how to evaluate IT-related controls to provide relevant assurance and advisory services.

While technical industry-specific expertise, cybersecurity expertise, and forensic accounting knowledge are valuable, they are not core competencies expected of every new internal auditor according to IIA guidance. The fundamental requirement is a solid grasp of IT risks and controls.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Competency Framework.

'Internal Auditing: Assurance & Advisory Services' by IIA, Chapter on IT Risks and Controls.

IIA's Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

When performing an audit of the risk management process an auditor makes the observations listed below. Which poses the greatest risk to the organization?

A.

The identified risks have not undergone a detailed review to ensure completeness in the past two years.

A.

The identified risks have not undergone a detailed review to ensure completeness in the past two years.

Answers
B.

The controls in place to mitigate the risks are not tested on an annual basis to confirm operating effectiveness.

B.

The controls in place to mitigate the risks are not tested on an annual basis to confirm operating effectiveness.

Answers
C.

The process in place to identify and evaluate new risks to the organization is informal and poorly documented.

C.

The process in place to identify and evaluate new risks to the organization is informal and poorly documented.

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D.

The identified risks have not been ranked to establish their importance and risk management priority.

D.

The identified risks have not been ranked to establish their importance and risk management priority.

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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When assessing the greatest risk among the provided observations in the audit of the risk management process, we must evaluate which issue could most significantly impact the organization's ability to manage risks effectively. Here is a detailed analysis of each option:

Option A: While not reviewing identified risks for completeness in the past two years is a concern, it does not necessarily imply that new risks have not been identified or managed during that time.

Option B: Not testing controls annually to confirm operating effectiveness is a significant issue, but existing controls may still be functioning effectively.

Option C: An informal and poorly documented process to identify and evaluate new risks presents a critical weakness. This means the organization might be unaware of emerging risks, leading to unmanaged exposures that could cause significant harm.

Option D: Not ranking identified risks to establish their importance affects prioritization but does not prevent risk identification or basic management.

The greatest risk is posed by Option C because an informal and poorly documented process to identify and evaluate new risks undermines the entire risk management framework, potentially allowing significant and emerging risks to go unrecognized and unaddressed.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Standards and Guidance on Risk Management.

COSO ERM Framework.

Due to extreme liquid fuel price fluctuations, management decided to designate a specific price below which liquid fuel shall not be sold to customers, but instead shall be pumped into storage tanks. Which of the following risk responses has management selected?

A.

Risk reduction.

A.

Risk reduction.

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B.

Risk transfer.

B.

Risk transfer.

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C.

Risk acceptance.

C.

Risk acceptance.

Answers
D.

Risk avoidance.

D.

Risk avoidance.

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Management's decision to set a specific price below which liquid fuel shall not be sold, but instead stored, represents Risk avoidance. This approach involves eliminating the risk entirely by avoiding the activity that generates the risk. In this scenario, by deciding not to sell fuel below a certain price, management avoids the risk of losses due to price fluctuations.

ISO 31000: Risk Management Guidelines.

COSO ERM Framework.

Which of the following survey questions would be most effective to identify ethics violations within the organization?

A.

Are the performance targets in your department realistic and attainable?

A.

Are the performance targets in your department realistic and attainable?

Answers
B.

Do your coworkers have the knowledge, skills, and training needed to perform their job duties?

B.

Do your coworkers have the knowledge, skills, and training needed to perform their job duties?

Answers
C.

Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization?

C.

Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization?

Answers
D.

Do you have sufficient resources, tools, and time to accomplish your work objectives?

D.

Do you have sufficient resources, tools, and time to accomplish your work objectives?

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Among the survey questions provided, the most effective for identifying ethics violations is: Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization? This question directly addresses compliance and ethical behavior of supervisors, which is crucial for setting an ethical tone at the top and ensuring organizational integrity.

Option A: Relates to performance targets and is not directly about ethics.

Option B: Focuses on skills and training, which are important but not specific to ethics.

Option D: Concerns resources and time, not directly addressing ethical violations.

IIA's Practice Guide on 'Auditing Culture'.

Compliance and Ethics Programs guidance.

What is the best course of action when the internal audit activity does not have the knowledge necessary to perform a planned audit of the organization's new IT data backup process?

A.

Postpone the audit engagement to a later date.

A.

Postpone the audit engagement to a later date.

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B.

Recruit and hire a full-time staff auditor who is proficient in data backup processes.

B.

Recruit and hire a full-time staff auditor who is proficient in data backup processes.

Answers
C.

Change the plan from an assurance engagement to a consulting engagement.

C.

Change the plan from an assurance engagement to a consulting engagement.

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D.

Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor.

D.

Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor.

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Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The best course of action when the internal audit activity lacks the necessary knowledge for a planned audit is to Provide data backup training to the engagement supervisor. This option ensures that the audit team builds the required competencies internally, enhancing their ability to perform the audit effectively.

Option A: Postponing the audit might delay identifying critical issues.

Option B: Recruiting a full-time staff auditor is not a practical immediate solution and could be resource-intensive.

Option C: Changing to a consulting engagement does not solve the knowledge gap for future audits.

Providing training aligns with the IIA Standard 1210.A1, which requires internal auditors to possess the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform their responsibilities.

IIA Standard 1210: Proficiency and Due Professional Care.

IIA Standard 1230: Continuing Professional Development.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

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B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

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C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

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D.

Risk management increases employees' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

D.

Risk management increases employees' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Risk management is not solely about mitigating or eliminating potential hazards but also involves identifying and seizing potential opportunities that can benefit the organization. Effective risk management allows an organization to balance risk and reward, making informed decisions that align with its strategic objectives. This approach ensures a proactive stance in optimizing performance and achieving competitive advantage while managing risks.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Standards and Practice Advisories.

COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Framework.

'Risk Management: Principles and Practices' by IIA.

According to IIA guidance, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in which of the following areas in order to maintain organizational independence?

A.

Monitoring resources.

A.

Monitoring resources.

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B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

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C.

Determining scope.

C.

Determining scope.

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D.

Allocating internal costs.

D.

Allocating internal costs.

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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

To maintain organizational independence, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in determining the scope of their work. This independence is crucial for ensuring that the audit process is objective and unbiased, allowing auditors to assess areas they deem necessary without external pressures or limitations. This autonomy helps in providing an honest and accurate evaluation of the organization's controls, risk management, and governance processes.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Standards, specifically Standard 1100 -- Independence and Objectivity.

IIA's International Professional Practices Framework (IPPF).

'Internal Auditing: Assurance & Advisory Services' by IIA, Chapter on Independence and Objectivity.

Which of the following controls would be most useful to prevent an employee from using the organization's funds for inappropriate expenditures and falsifying financial records to conceal the fraud?

A.

Segregating duties in the payroll processes.

A.

Segregating duties in the payroll processes.

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B.

Confirming receipt of goods or services.

B.

Confirming receipt of goods or services.

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C.

Performing background checks on newly hired employees.

C.

Performing background checks on newly hired employees.

Answers
D.

Requiring management approval for expenses.

D.

Requiring management approval for expenses.

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Requiring management approval for expenses is an effective control to prevent inappropriate use of organizational funds and falsification of financial records. This control ensures that all expenditures are reviewed and approved by a higher authority, providing a check against potential misuse of funds. It helps in verifying the legitimacy and necessity of expenses, thereby reducing the risk of fraudulent activities by employees.

The Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) Standards and Practice Advisories.

COSO Internal Control -- Integrated Framework.

'Internal Auditing: Assurance & Advisory Services' by IIA, Chapter on Expense Management and Approval Controls.

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