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Which of the following is the physical topology for an Ethernet LAN?

A.
Bus
A.
Bus
Answers
B.
Ring
B.
Ring
Answers
C.
Mesh
C.
Mesh
Answers
D.
Star
D.
Star
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

In a star topology, all devices on a network connect to a central hub or switch, which acts as a common connection point. Ethernet LANs typically use a star topology, with each device connected to a central switch. Reference:

Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 2.2 Explain common logical network topologies and their characteristics.

An IT director is setting up new disaster and HA policies for a company. Limited downtime is critical to operations. To meet corporate requirements, the director set up two different datacenters across the country that will stay current on data and applications. In the event of an outage, the company can immediately switch from one datacenter to another. Which of the following does this BEST describe?

A.
A warm site
A.
A warm site
Answers
B.
Data mirroring
B.
Data mirroring
Answers
C.
Multipathing
C.
Multipathing
Answers
D.
Load balancing
D.
Load balancing
Answers
E.
A hot site
E.
A hot site
Answers
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

A hot site is a fully redundant site that can take over operations immediately if the primary site goes down. In this scenario, the company has set up two different datacenters across the country that are current on data and applications, and they can immediately switch from one datacenter to another in case of an outage. Reference:

Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 1.5 Compare and contrast disaster recovery concepts and methodologies.

The management team needs to ensure unnecessary modifications to the corporate network are not permitted and version control is maintained. Which of the following documents would BEST support this?

A.
An incident response plan
A.
An incident response plan
Answers
B.
A business continuity plan
B.
A business continuity plan
Answers
C.
A change management policy
C.
A change management policy
Answers
D.
An acceptable use policy
D.
An acceptable use policy
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A change management policy is a document that outlines the procedures and guidelines for making changes to a network or system, including how changes are approved, tested, and implemented. By following a change management policy, organizations can ensure that unnecessary modifications to the network are not permitted and version control is maintained. Reference:

Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 1.6 Given a scenario, implement network configuration and change management best practices.

Which of the following is MOST likely to generate significant East-West traffic in a datacenter?

A.
A backup of a large video presentation to cloud storage for archival purposes
A.
A backup of a large video presentation to cloud storage for archival purposes
Answers
B.
A duplication of a hosted virtual server to another physical server for redundancy
B.
A duplication of a hosted virtual server to another physical server for redundancy
Answers
C.
A download of navigation data to a portable device for offline access
C.
A download of navigation data to a portable device for offline access
Answers
D.
A query from an IoT device to a cloud-hosted server for a firmware update
D.
A query from an IoT device to a cloud-hosted server for a firmware update
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

East-West traffic refers to data flows between servers or devices within the same datacenter. When a hosted virtual server is duplicated to another physical server for redundancy, it generates significant East-West traffic as the data is replicated between the two servers. Reference:

Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 3.3 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.

A technician is troubleshooting a network switch that seems to stop responding to requests intermittently whenever the logging level is set for debugging. Which of the following metrics should the technician check to begin troubleshooting the issue?

A.
Audit logs
A.
Audit logs
Answers
B.
CPU utilization
B.
CPU utilization
Answers
C.
CRC errors
C.
CRC errors
Answers
D.
Jitter
D.
Jitter
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

CPU utilization is a metric that measures the percentage of time a CPU spends executing instructions. When the logging level is set for debugging, the router may generate a large amount of logging data, which can increase CPU utilization and cause the router to stop responding to requests intermittently. Reference:

Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 2.1 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common physical connectivity issues.

A technician wants to deploy a new wireless network that comprises 30 WAPs installed throughout a three-story office building. All the APs will broadcast the same SSID for client access. Which of the following BEST describes this deployment?

A.
Extended service set
A.
Extended service set
Answers
B.
Basic service set
B.
Basic service set
Answers
C.
Unified service set
C.
Unified service set
Answers
D.
Independent basic service set
D.
Independent basic service set
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

An extended service set (ESS) is a wireless network that consists of multiple access points (APs) that share the same SSID and are connected by a wired network. An ESS allows wireless clients to roam seamlessly between different APs without losing connectivity. A basic service set (BSS) is a wireless network that consists of a single AP and its associated clients. An independent basic service set (IBSS) is a wireless network that consists of a group of clients that communicate directly without an AP. A unified service set is not a standard term for a wireless network. Reference:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam- objectives-(2-0), https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Service_set_(802.11_network)

A user tries to ping 192.168.1.100 from the command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network but gets the following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following needs to be configured for these networks to reach each other?

A.
Network address translation
A.
Network address translation
Answers
B.
Default gateway
B.
Default gateway
Answers
C.
Loopback
C.
Loopback
Answers
D.
Routing protocol
D.
Routing protocol
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A default gateway is a device that routes traffic from one network to another network, such as the Internet. A default gateway is usually configured on each host device to specify the IP address of the router that connects the host’s network to other networks. In this case, the user’s device and the destination device are on different networks (192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24), so the user needs to configure a default gateway on their device to reach the destination device. Reference:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam- objectives-(2-0), https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25761/default-gateway

A branch of a company recently switched to a new ISP. The network engineer was given a new IP range to assign. The ISP assigned 196.26.4.0/26, and the branch gateway router now has the following configurations on the interface that peers to the ISP:

The network engineer observes that all users have lost Internet connectivity. Which of the following describes the issue?

A.
The incorrect subnet mask was configured
A.
The incorrect subnet mask was configured
Answers
B.
The incorrect gateway was configured
B.
The incorrect gateway was configured
Answers
C.
The incorrect IP address was configured
C.
The incorrect IP address was configured
Answers
D.
The incorrect interface was configured
D.
The incorrect interface was configured
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The IP address configured on the router interface is 196.26.4.1/26, which belongs to the IP range assigned by the ISP (196.26.4.0/26). However, this IP address is not valid for this interface because it is the network address of the subnet, which cannot be assigned to any host device. The network address is the first address of a subnet that identifies the subnet itself. The valid IP addresses for this subnet are from 196.26.4.1 to 196.26.4.62, excluding the network address (196.26.4.0) and the broadcast address (196.26.4.63). The router interface should be configured with a valid IP address within this range to restore Internet connectivity for all users. Reference:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam- objectives-(2-0), https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24136/network-address

Within the realm of network security, Zero Trust:

A.
prevents attackers from moving laterally through a system.
A.
prevents attackers from moving laterally through a system.
Answers
B.
allows a server to communicate with outside networks without a firewall.
B.
allows a server to communicate with outside networks without a firewall.
Answers
C.
block malicious software that is too new to be found in virus definitions.
C.
block malicious software that is too new to be found in virus definitions.
Answers
D.
stops infected files from being downloaded via websites.
D.
stops infected files from being downloaded via websites.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Zero Trust is a security framework that requires all users, whether in or outside the organization’s network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data. Zero Trust prevents attackers from moving laterally through a system by applying granular policies and controls based on the principle of least privilege and by segmenting and encrypting data flows across the network.

Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008- exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/zero-trust-security/

Which of the following service models would MOST likely be used to replace on-premises servers with a cloud solution?

A.
PaaS
A.
PaaS
Answers
B.
IaaS
B.
IaaS
Answers
C.
SaaS
C.
SaaS
Answers
D.
Disaster recovery as a Service (DRaaS)
D.
Disaster recovery as a Service (DRaaS)
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing resources over the Internet, such as servers, storage, networking, and operating systems. IaaS allows customers to replace their on-premises servers with cloud servers that can be scaled up or down on demand and pay only for what they use. PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which provides customers with a cloud-based platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications without managing the underlying infrastructure. SaaS stands for Software as a Service, which provides customers with access to cloud-based software applications over the Internet without installing or maintaining them on their devices. Disaster recovery as a Service (DRaaS) is a type of cloud service that provides customers with backup and recovery solutions for their data and applications in case of a disaster.

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