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A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the following should the management team consult to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?

A.
Memorandum of understanding
A.
Memorandum of understanding
Answers
B.
Business continuity plan
B.
Business continuity plan
Answers
C.
Disaster recovery plan
C.
Disaster recovery plan
Answers
D.
Service-level agreement
D.
Service-level agreement
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon availability of the cloud service provider, the expected uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.

A cafeteria is lacing lawsuits related to criminal internet access that was made over its guest network. The marketing team, however, insists on keeping the cafeteria phone number as the wireless passphrase. Which of the following actions would Improve wireless security while accommodating the marketing team and accepting the terms of use?

A.
Setting WLAN security to use EAP-TLS
A.
Setting WLAN security to use EAP-TLS
Answers
B.
Deploying a captive portal tor user authentication
B.
Deploying a captive portal tor user authentication
Answers
C.
Using geofencing to limit the area covered by the WLAN
C.
Using geofencing to limit the area covered by the WLAN
Answers
D.
Configuring guest network isolation
D.
Configuring guest network isolation
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A captive portal is a web page that is presented to a user before they are allowed to access a network. It is used to authenticate users and to ensure that all users have accepted the terms of use for the network. By deploying a captive portal, the cafeteria can require users to enter their phone number as the passphrase, while still providing an additional layer of security. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, 8th Edition, page 182.

A network technician is attempting to increase throughput by configuring link port aggregation between a Gigabit Ethernet distribution switch and a Fast Ethernet access switch. Which of the following is the BEST choice concerning speed and duplex for all interfaces that are participating in the link aggregation?

A.
Half duplex and 1GB speed
A.
Half duplex and 1GB speed
Answers
B.
Full duplex and 1GB speed
B.
Full duplex and 1GB speed
Answers
C.
Half duplex and 10OMB speed
C.
Half duplex and 10OMB speed
Answers
D.
Full duplex and 100MB speed
D.
Full duplex and 100MB speed
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best choice for configuring link port aggregation between a Gigabit Ethernet distribution switch and a Fast Ethernet access switch is to use full duplex and 1GB speed for all interfaces that are participating in the link aggregation. This will allow for maximum throughput, as the full duplex connection will enable simultaneous sending and receiving of data, and the 1GB speed will ensure that the data is transferred quickly.

According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, “Full-duplex Ethernet allows the network adapter to transmit and receive data simultaneously, which can result in double the bandwidth of half-duplex Ethernet.” Additionally, the official text states, “Ethernet and Fast Ethernet use different speeds for data transmission, with Ethernet being 1,000 megabits (1 gigabit) per second and Fast Ethernet being 100 megabits per second.”

After rebooting an AP a user is no longer able to conned to me enterprise LAN A technician plugs a laptop In to the same network jack and receives the IP 169.254 0 200. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A.
DHCP scope exhaustion
A.
DHCP scope exhaustion
Answers
B.
Signal attenuation
B.
Signal attenuation
Answers
C.
Channel overlap
C.
Channel overlap
Answers
D.
Improper DNS configuration
D.
Improper DNS configuration
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

DHCP scope exhaustion occurs when the number of available IP addresses to be leased from a DHCP server have been used up. This could be caused by a large number of clients on the network, or a misconfigured DHCP scope. When this happens, clients will be assigned an IP address from the APIPA range (169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255). To resolve this issue, the DHCP scope needs to be expanded or adjusted to accommodate the number of clients on the network.

Which of the following attacks, if successful, would provide a malicious user who is connected to an isolated guest network access to the corporate network?

A.
VLAN hopping
A.
VLAN hopping
Answers
B.
On-path attack
B.
On-path attack
Answers
C.
IP spoofing
C.
IP spoofing
Answers
D.
Evil twin
D.
Evil twin
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The attack which, if successful, would provide a malicious user who is connected to an isolated guest network access to the corporate network is VLAN hopping. VLAN hopping is an attack technique which involves tricking a switch into sending traffic from one VLAN to another. This is done by sending specially crafted packets, which force the switch to send traffic from one VLAN to another, thus allowing the malicious user to gain access to the corporate network. VLAN hopping is an attack technique which involves tricking a switch into sending traffic from one VLAN to another. This is done by sending specially crafted packets, which force the switch to send traffic from one VLAN to another, thus allowing the malicious user to gain access to the corporate network. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Guide VLAN hopping is a type of attack that is used to gain access to network resources that are not meant to be accessible by a user on a guest network.

A network administrator is creating a subnet for a remote office that has 53 network devices. An additional requirement is to use the most efficient subnet. Which of the following CIDR notations indicates the appropriate number of IP addresses with the LEAST amount of unused addresses? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)

A.
/24
A.
/24
Answers
B.
/26
B.
/26
Answers
C.
/28
C.
/28
Answers
D.
D.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A. /24

B. /26

C. /28

D. /32

Answer: B

Explanation:

This CIDR notation indicates that there are 64 IP addresses, of which 62 are usable for network devices. This provides the LEAST amount of unused addresses, making it the most efficient subnet for a remote office with 53 network devices. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "Subnetting allows you to divide one large network into smaller, more manageable networks or subnets."

A network technician needs to ensure the company's external mail server can pass reverse lookup checks. Which of the following records would the technician MOST likely configure? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)

A.
PTR
A.
PTR
Answers
B.
AAAA
B.
AAAA
Answers
C.
SPF
C.
SPF
Answers
D.
D.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A. PTR

B. AAAA

C. SPF

D. CNAME

Answer: A

Explanation:

A PTR (Pointer) record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, which is necessary for reverse lookup checks. Reverse lookup checks are performed by external mail servers to verify the identity of the sender of the email. By configuring a PTR record, the network technician can ensure that the company's external mail server can pass these checks. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "A PTR record is used to map an IP address to a domain name, and it is often used for email authentication."

A company wants to invest in new hardware for the core network infrastructure. The management team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails. Which of the following metrics is MOST likely associated with this requirement?

A.
RPO
A.
RPO
Answers
B.
MTTR
B.
MTTR
Answers
C.
FHRP
C.
FHRP
Answers
D.
MTBF
D.
MTBF
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

MTTR is directly related to how quickly a system can be repaired if any major part fails3. The management team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes, which means they have a low MTTR requirement.

MTTR stands for Mean Time To Repair and is a metric used to measure the average amount of time it takes to repair a failed component or system. In this case, the requirement is for the infrastructure to be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails, which means the MTTR should be less than 60 minutes.

A desktop support department has observed slow wireless speeds for a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image. No other devices have experienced the same issue. Which of the following should the network administrator recommend troubleshooting FIRST to resolve this issue?

A.
Increasing wireless signal power
A.
Increasing wireless signal power
Answers
B.
Installing a new WAP
B.
Installing a new WAP
Answers
C.
Changing the protocol associated to the SSID
C.
Changing the protocol associated to the SSID
Answers
D.
Updating the device wireless drivers
D.
Updating the device wireless drivers
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Wireless drivers can affect the performance and compatibility of your wireless connection5. If only a new line of laptops using the organization’s standard image has experienced slow wireless speeds, it could be that their wireless drivers are outdated or incompatible with the network. Updating the device wireless drivers could resolve this issue.

Wireless drivers play an important role in the performance of a wireless connection, as they control how the device interacts with the wireless network. If the laptops in question are using an outdated version of the wireless driver, it could be causing the slow speeds. The network administrator should recommend updating the device wireless drivers first to see if this resolves the issue.

A large number of PCs are obtaining an APIPA IP address, and a number of new computers were added to the network. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the PCs to obtain an APIPA address?

A.
Rogue DHCP server
A.
Rogue DHCP server
Answers
B.
Network collision
B.
Network collision
Answers
C.
Incorrect DNS settings
C.
Incorrect DNS settings
Answers
D.
DHCP scope exhaustion
D.
DHCP scope exhaustion
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

DHCP scope exhaustion means that there are no more available IP addresses in the DHCP server’s pool of addresses to assign to new devices on the network. When this happens, the devices will use APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) to self-configure an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.2541. These addresses are not routable and can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.

A rogue DHCP server (A) is an unauthorized DHCP server that can cause IP address conflicts or security issues by assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. A network collision (B) is a situation where two or more devices try to send data on the same network segment at the same time, causing interference and data loss. Incorrect DNS settings © can prevent devices from resolving domain names to IP addresses, but they do not affect the DHCP process.

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