ExamGecko
Home Home / CompTIA / N10-009

CompTIA N10-009 Practice Test - Questions Answers

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?

A.
Neighbor adjacency
A.
Neighbor adjacency
Answers
B.
Link state flooding
B.
Link state flooding
Answers
C.
Administrative distance
C.
Administrative distance
Answers
D.
Hop count
D.
Hop count
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Introduction to Administrative Distance

Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.

Static Routes and Backup Routes

When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.

Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance

The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.

Example Configuration:

plaintext

Copy code

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1

ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10

In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.

10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.

10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.

Verification:

After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.

CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9Basic Configuration Commands).

Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer?

A.
It relies upon other layers for packet delivery. OB. It checks independently for packet loss.
A.
It relies upon other layers for packet delivery. OB. It checks independently for packet loss.
Answers
B.
It encrypts data in transit.
B.
It encrypts data in transit.
Answers
C.
It performs address translation.
C.
It performs address translation.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Introduction to OSI Model:

The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application.

Application Layer:

The application layer (Layer 7) is the topmost layer in the OSI model. It provides network services directly to end-user applications. This layer facilitates communication between software applications and lower layers of the network protocol stack.

Reliance on Other Layers:

The application layer relies on the transport layer (Layer 4) for data transfer across the network. The transport layer ensures reliable data delivery through protocols like TCP and UDP.

The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for routing packets to their destination.

The data link layer (Layer 2) handles node-to-node data transfer and error detection.

The physical layer (Layer 1) deals with the physical connection between devices.

Explanation of the Options:

A . It relies upon other layers for packet delivery: This is correct. The application layer depends on the lower layers (transport, network, data link, and physical) for the actual delivery of data packets.

B . It checks independently for packet loss: This is incorrect. Packet loss detection is typically handled by the transport layer (e.g., TCP).

C . It encrypts data in transit: This is incorrect. Encryption is typically handled by the presentation layer or at the transport layer (e.g., TLS/SSL).

D . It performs address translation: This is incorrect. Address translation is performed by the network layer (e.g., NAT).

Conclusion:

The application layer's primary role is to interface with the end-user applications and ensure that data is correctly presented to the user. It relies on the underlying layers to manage the actual data transport and delivery processes.

CompTIA Network+ guide covering the OSI model and the specific roles and functions of each layer (see page Ref 10How to Use Cisco Packet Tracer).

Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?

A.
A router with only one available LAN port
A.
A router with only one available LAN port
Answers
B.
A firewall performing deep packet inspection
B.
A firewall performing deep packet inspection
Answers
C.
A hub utilizing jumbo frames
C.
A hub utilizing jumbo frames
Answers
D.
A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
D.
A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Introduction to Subinterfaces:

Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.

Use Case for Subinterfaces:

Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.

This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.

Example Configuration:

Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10

encapsulation dot1Q 10

ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

!

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20

encapsulation dot1Q 20

ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.

Explanation of the Options:

A . A router with only one available LAN port: This is correct. Subinterfaces allow a single physical interface to manage multiple networks, making it essential for routers with limited physical interfaces.

B . A firewall performing deep packet inspection: Firewalls can use subinterfaces, but it is not a requirement for deep packet inspection.

C . A hub utilizing jumbo frames: Hubs do not use subinterfaces as they operate at Layer 1 and do not manage IP addressing.

D . A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol: STP is a protocol for preventing loops in a network and does not require subinterfaces.

Conclusion:

Subinterfaces provide a practical solution for routing between multiple VLANs on a router with limited physical interfaces. They allow network administrators to optimize the use of available hardware resources efficiently.

CompTIA Network+ guide detailing VLAN configurations and the use of subinterfaces (see page Ref 9Basic Configuration Commands).

Which of the following attacks utilizes a network packet that contains multiple network tags?

A.
MAC flooding
A.
MAC flooding
Answers
B.
VLAN hopping
B.
VLAN hopping
Answers
C.
DNS spoofing
C.
DNS spoofing
Answers
D.
ARP poisoning
D.
ARP poisoning
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

VLAN hopping is an attack where an attacker crafts packets with multiple VLAN tags, allowing them to traverse VLAN boundaries improperly. This can result in gaining unauthorized access to network segments that are supposed to be isolated. The other options do not involve the use of multiple network tags. MAC flooding aims to overwhelm a switch's MAC address table, DNS spoofing involves forging DNS responses, and ARP poisoning involves sending fake ARP messages.

According to the CompTIA Network+ course materials, VLAN hopping exploits the tagging mechanism in network packets to gain unauthorized access.

Which of the following describes the best reason for using BGP?

A.
Preventing a loop within a LAN
A.
Preventing a loop within a LAN
Answers
B.
Improving reconvergence times
B.
Improving reconvergence times
Answers
C.
Exchanging router updates with a different ISP
C.
Exchanging router updates with a different ISP
Answers
D.
Sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch
D.
Sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing data between different ISPs, making it essential for the functioning of the internet. Its primary use is for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems, especially different ISPs. Preventing loops within a LAN is handled by protocols like Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), while improving reconvergence times and sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch are functions of other protocols or internal mechanisms.

The CompTIA Network+ training emphasizes BGP's role in the exchange of routing information across different ISPs and autonomous systems.

A company's marketing team created a new application and would like to create a DNS record for newapplication.comptia.org that always resolves to the same address as www.comptia.org. Which of the following records should the administrator use?

A.
SOA
A.
SOA
Answers
B.
MX
B.
MX
Answers
C.
CNAME
C.
CNAME
Answers
D.
NS
D.
NS
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to alias one domain name to another. This means that newapplication.comptia.org can be made to resolve to the same IP address as www.comptia.org by creating a CNAME record pointing newapplication.comptia.org to www.comptia.org. SOA (Start of Authority) is used for DNS zone information, MX (Mail Exchange) is for mail server records, and NS (Name Server) is for specifying authoritative DNS servers.

The DNS section of the CompTIA Network+ materials describes the use of CNAME records for creating domain aliases.

Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account?

A.
Network security group
A.
Network security group
Answers
B.
laaS
B.
laaS
Answers
C.
VPC
C.
VPC
Answers
D.
Hybrid cloud
D.
Hybrid cloud
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account. A VPC allows you to define a virtual network that closely resembles a traditional network, complete with subnets, route tables, and gateways. This segmentation enables the isolation of different parts of a network within a cloud environment, ensuring security and efficient resource management. VPCs are a key component in many cloud infrastructures, providing the flexibility to manage and control network settings and resources.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section.

A user connects to a corporate VPN via a web browser and is able to use TLS to access the internal financial system to input a time card. Which of the following best describes how the VPN is being used?

A.
Clientless
A.
Clientless
Answers
B.
Client-to-site
B.
Client-to-site
Answers
C.
Full tunnel
C.
Full tunnel
Answers
D.
Site-to-site
D.
Site-to-site
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The scenario describes a user connecting to a corporate VPN via a web browser using TLS to access an internal system. This setup is best described as a 'clientless' VPN. Clientless VPNs do not require a VPN client to be installed on the user's device; instead, they rely on a standard web browser to establish the connection. This method is particularly useful for providing secure, remote access to applications through a web interface without the need for additional software installations.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Remote Access Methods section.

A network engineer wants to implement a new IDS between the switch and a router connected to the LAN. The engineer does not want to introduce any latency by placing the IDS in line with the gateway. The engineer does want to ensure that the IDS sees all packets without any loss. Which of the following is the best way for the engineer to implement the IDS?

A.
Use a network tap.
A.
Use a network tap.
Answers
B.
Use Nmap software.
B.
Use Nmap software.
Answers
C.
Use a protocol analyzer.
C.
Use a protocol analyzer.
Answers
D.
Use a port mirror.
D.
Use a port mirror.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

To ensure that an IDS sees all packets without any loss and without introducing latency, the best approach is to use a port mirror, also known as a SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) port. Port mirroring copies network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to another port where the IDS is connected. This method allows the IDS to monitor traffic passively without being in the direct path of network traffic, thus avoiding any additional latency.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section.

Which of the following panels would be best to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the floor of a company building?

A.
Patch
A.
Patch
Answers
B.
UPS
B.
UPS
Answers
C.
MDF
C.
MDF
Answers
D.
Rack
D.
Rack
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A patch panel is the best choice to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the floor of a company building. Patch panels are used to manage and organize multiple network cables, providing a central point where all cables converge. This setup allows for easy management, troubleshooting, and reconfiguration of network connections. The other options, such as UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply), MDF (Main Distribution Frame), and rack, serve different purposes and are not specifically designed for the central termination of network cables.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Installation section.

Total 153 questions
Go to page: of 16