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Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?

A.
IS-IS
A.
IS-IS
Answers
B.
EIGRP
B.
EIGRP
Answers
C.
OSPF
C.
OSPF
Answers
D.
BGP
D.
BGP
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.

Which of the following is the most secure way to provide site-to-site connectivity?

A.
VXLAN
A.
VXLAN
Answers
B.
IKE
B.
IKE
Answers
C.
GRE
C.
GRE
Answers
D.
IPsec
D.
IPsec
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is the most secure way to provide site-to-site connectivity. It provides robust security services, such as data integrity, authentication, and encryption, ensuring that data sent across the network is protected from interception and tampering. Unlike other options, IPsec operates at the network layer and can secure all traffic that crosses the IP network, making it the most comprehensive and secure choice for site-to-site VPNs.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and NIST Special Publication 800-77.

A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?

A.
724
A.
724
Answers
B.
/26
B.
/26
Answers
C.
/28
C.
/28
Answers
D.
/30
D.
/30
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.

To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?

A.
Public
A.
Public
Answers
B.
Hybrid
B.
Hybrid
Answers
C.
SaaS
C.
SaaS
Answers
D.
Private
D.
Private
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.

A technician is troubleshooting a user's laptop that is unable to connect to a corporate server. The technician thinks the issue pertains to routing. Which of the following commands should the technician use to identify the issue?

A.
tcpdump
A.
tcpdump
Answers
B.
dig
B.
dig
Answers
C.
tracert
C.
tracert
Answers
D.
arp
D.
arp
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The tracert (Traceroute) command is used to determine the path packets take from the source to the destination. It helps in identifying routing issues by showing each hop the packets pass through, along with the time taken for each hop. This command can pinpoint where the connection is failing or experiencing delays, making it an essential tool for troubleshooting routing issues.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and common network troubleshooting commands.

Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?

A.
LC
A.
LC
Answers
B.
SC
B.
SC
Answers
C.
ST
C.
ST
Answers
D.
MPO
D.
MPO
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Definition of Fiber Connector Types:

LC (Lucent Connector): A small form-factor fiber optic connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, commonly used for high-density applications.

SC (Subscriber Connector or Standard Connector): A larger form-factor connector with a push-pull latching mechanism, often used in datacom and telecom applications.

ST (Straight Tip): A bayonet-style connector, typically used in multimode fiber optic networks.

MPO (Multi-fiber Push On): A connector designed to support multiple fibers (typically 12 or 24 fibers), used in high-density cabling environments.

Common Usage:

LC Connectors: Due to their small size, LC connectors are widely used in network interface cards (NICs) and high-density environments such as data centers. They allow for more connections in a smaller space compared to SC and ST connectors.

SC and ST Connectors: These are larger and more commonly used in patch panels and older fiber installations but are less suitable for high-density applications.

MPO Connectors: Primarily used for trunk cables in data centers and high-density applications but not typically on individual network interface cards.

Selection Criteria:

The small form-factor and high-density capabilities of LC connectors make them the preferred choice for network interface cards, where space and connection density are critical considerations.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on fiber optics and connector types.

A network engineer receives a vendor alert regarding a vulnerability in a router CPU. Which of the following should the engineer do to resolve the issue?

A.
Update the firmware.
A.
Update the firmware.
Answers
B.
Replace the system board.
B.
Replace the system board.
Answers
C.
Patch the OS.
C.
Patch the OS.
Answers
D.
Isolate the system.
D.
Isolate the system.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Understanding the Vulnerability:

Vulnerabilities in the router CPU can be exploited to cause performance degradation, unauthorized access, or other security issues.

Firmware Update:

Firmware Role: The firmware is low-level software that controls the hardware of a device. Updating the firmware can address vulnerabilities by providing patches and enhancements from the manufacturer.

Procedure: Download the latest firmware from the vendor's website, follow the manufacturer's instructions to apply the update, and verify that the update resolves the vulnerability.

Comparison with Other Options:

Replace the System Board: This is a costly and often unnecessary step if the issue can be resolved with a firmware update.

Patch the OS: Patching the OS is relevant for devices with a full operating system but not directly applicable to addressing a CPU vulnerability on a router.

Isolate the System: Temporarily isolating the system can mitigate immediate risk but does not resolve the underlying vulnerability.

Best Practice:

Regularly check for and apply firmware updates to ensure that network devices are protected against known vulnerabilities.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security and device management.

A virtual machine has the following configuration:

* IPv4 address: 169.254.10.10

* Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0

The virtual machine can reach colocated systems but cannot reach external addresses on the Internet. Which of the following Is most likely the root cause?

A.
The subnet mask is incorrect.
A.
The subnet mask is incorrect.
Answers
B.
The DHCP server is offline.
B.
The DHCP server is offline.
Answers
C.
The IP address is an RFC1918 private address.
C.
The IP address is an RFC1918 private address.
Answers
D.
The DNS server is unreachable.
D.
The DNS server is unreachable.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Understanding the 169.254.x.x Address:

An IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.x.x is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable.

DHCP Server Offline:

APIPA Assignment: When a device cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA address to enable local network communication. This allows communication with other devices on the same local subnet but not with external networks.

Resolution: Ensure the DHCP server is operational. Check for connectivity issues between the virtual machine and the DHCP server, and verify the DHCP server settings.

Comparison with Other Options:

The subnet mask is incorrect: The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is appropriate for the 169.254.x.x range and does not prevent external access by itself.

The IP address is an RFC1918 private address: RFC1918 addresses are private IP ranges (10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, 192.168.x.x) but 169.254.x.x is not one of them.

The DNS server is unreachable: While this could affect name resolution, it would not prevent the assignment of a non-APIPA address or local network communication.

Troubleshooting Steps:

Verify the DHCP server's status and connectivity.

Restart the DHCP service if necessary.

Renew the IP lease on the virtual machine using commands such as ipconfig /renew (Windows) or dhclient (Linux).

CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP addressing and DHCP troubleshooting.

A network technician is troubleshooting a web application's poor performance. The office has two internet links that share the traffic load. Which of the following tools should the technician use to determine which link is being used for the web application?

A.
netstat
A.
netstat
Answers
B.
nslookup
B.
nslookup
Answers
C.
ping
C.
ping
Answers
D.
tracert
D.
tracert
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Understanding Tracert:

Traceroute Tool: tracert (Windows) or traceroute (Linux) is a network diagnostic tool used to trace the path that packets take from a source to a destination. It lists all the intermediate routers the packets traverse.

Determining Traffic Path:

Path Identification: By running tracert to the web application's destination IP address, the technician can identify which route the traffic is taking and thereby determine which internet link is being used.

Load Balancing Insight: If the office uses load balancing for its internet links, tracert can help verify which link is currently handling the traffic for the web application.

Comparison with Other Tools:

netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace the path of packets.

nslookup: Used for querying DNS to obtain domain name or IP address mapping, not for tracing packet routes.

ping: Tests connectivity and measures round-trip time but does not provide path information.

Implementation:

Open a command prompt or terminal.

Execute tracert [destination IP] to trace the route.

Analyze the output to determine the path and the link being used.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on network troubleshooting and diagnostic tools.

A network administrator configured a router interface as 10.0.0.95 255.255.255.240. The administrator discovers that the router is not routing packets to a web server with IP 10.0.0.81/28. Which of the following is the best explanation?

A.
The web server Is In a different subnet.
A.
The web server Is In a different subnet.
Answers
B.
The router interface is a broadcast address.
B.
The router interface is a broadcast address.
Answers
C.
The IP address space is a class A network.
C.
The IP address space is a class A network.
Answers
D.
The subnet is in a private address space.
D.
The subnet is in a private address space.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Understanding Subnetting:

The subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (or /28) indicates that each subnet has 16 IP addresses (14 usable addresses, 1 network address, and 1 broadcast address).

Calculating the Subnet Range:

Subnet Calculation: For the IP address 10.0.0.95 with a /28 subnet mask:

Network address: 10.0.0.80

Usable IP range: 10.0.0.81 to 10.0.0.94

Broadcast address: 10.0.0.95

Router Interface Configuration:

Broadcast Address Issue: The IP address 10.0.0.95 is the broadcast address for the subnet 10.0.0.80/28. Configuring a router interface with the broadcast address will cause routing issues as it is not a valid host address.

Comparison with Other Options:

The web server is in a different subnet: The web server (10.0.0.81) is within the same subnet range (10.0.0.80/28).

The IP address space is a class A network: While 10.0.0.0 is a Class A network, this does not explain the routing issue caused by the broadcast address.

The subnet is in a private address space: The private address space designation (RFC 1918) does not impact the routing issue related to the broadcast address configuration.

Resolution:

Reconfigure the router interface with a valid host IP address within the usable range, such as 10.0.0.94.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on subnetting and IP address configuration.

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