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Which of the following does a full-tunnel VPN provide?

A.
Lower bandwidth requirements
A.
Lower bandwidth requirements
Answers
B.
The ability to reset local computer passwords
B.
The ability to reset local computer passwords
Answers
C.
Corporate Inspection of all network traffic
C.
Corporate Inspection of all network traffic
Answers
D.
Access to blocked sites
D.
Access to blocked sites
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A full-tunnel VPN routes all of a user's network traffic through the corporate network. This means that the organization can inspect all network traffic for security and compliance purposes, as all data is tunneled through the VPN, allowing for comprehensive monitoring and inspection.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light does not turn on. Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?

A.
Reverse the fibers.
A.
Reverse the fibers.
Answers
B.
Reterminate the fibers.
B.
Reterminate the fibers.
Answers
C.
Verify the fiber size.
C.
Verify the fiber size.
Answers
D.
Examine the cable runs for visual faults.
D.
Examine the cable runs for visual faults.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

When working with fiber optic cables, one common issue is that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers might be reversed. The first step in troubleshooting should be to reverse the fibers at one end to ensure they are correctly aligned (TX to RX and RX to TX). This is a simple and quick step to rule out a common issue before moving on to more complex troubleshooting.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90?

A.
RIP
A.
RIP
Answers
B.
EIGRP
B.
EIGRP
Answers
C.
OSPF
C.
OSPF
Answers
D.
BGP
D.
BGP
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has a default administrative distance (AD) value of 90 for internal routes. The administrative distance is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received from different routing protocols. EIGRP, developed by Cisco, has an AD of 90, which is lower than that of RIP (120) and OSPF (110), making it more preferred if multiple protocols provide a route to the same destination.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Which of the following is a cost-effective advantage of a split-tunnel VPN?

A.
Web traffic is filtered through a web filter.
A.
Web traffic is filtered through a web filter.
Answers
B.
More bandwidth is required on the company's internet connection.
B.
More bandwidth is required on the company's internet connection.
Answers
C.
Monitoring detects insecure machines on the company's network.
C.
Monitoring detects insecure machines on the company's network.
Answers
D.
Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network.
D.
Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A split-tunnel VPN allows certain traffic (e.g., cloud-based services) to bypass the VPN and go directly to the Internet. This reduces the amount of traffic that needs to traverse the company's VPN and Internet connection, conserving bandwidth and reducing costs. It also means that not all traffic is subject to the same level of inspection or filtering, which can improve performance for cloud-based services.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Which of the following should be configured so users can authenticate to a wireless network using company credentials?

A.
SSO
A.
SSO
Answers
B.
SAML
B.
SAML
Answers
C.
MFA
C.
MFA
Answers
D.
RADIUS
D.
RADIUS
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service. RADIUS is often used to manage access to wireless networks, enabling users to authenticate with their company credentials, ensuring secure access to the network.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?

A.
GDPR
A.
GDPR
Answers
B.
SCADA
B.
SCADA
Answers
C.
SAML
C.
SAML
Answers
D.
PCI DSS
D.
PCI DSS
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Definition of GDPR:

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.

Scope and Objectives:

GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.

It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.

Comparison with Other Options:

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.

Key Provisions:

GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on regulatory and compliance standards.

Users cannot connect to an internal website with an IP address 10.249.3.76. A network administrator runs a command and receives the following output:

1 3ms 2ms 3ms 192.168.25.234

2 2ms 3ms 1ms 192.168.3.100

3 4ms 5ms 2ms 10.249.3.1

4 *

5 '

6 *

7 *

Which of the following command-line tools is the network administrator using?

A.
tracert
A.
tracert
Answers
B.
netstat
B.
netstat
Answers
C.
tcpdump
C.
tcpdump
Answers
D.
nmap
D.
nmap
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Understanding Tracert:

tracert (Traceroute in Windows) is a command-line tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It records the route (the specific gateways at each hop) and measures transit delays of packets across an IP network.

Output Analysis:

The output shows a series of IP addresses with corresponding round-trip times (RTTs) in milliseconds.

The asterisks (*) indicate that no response was received from those hops, which is typical for routers or firewalls that block ICMP packets used by tracert.

Comparison with Other Tools:

netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace packet routes.

tcpdump: Captures network packets for analysis, used for detailed network traffic inspection.

nmap: A network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a network, not for tracing packet routes.

Usage:

tracert helps identify the path to a destination and locate points of failure or congestion in the network.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on network troubleshooting and diagnostic tools.

Which of the following attacks would most likely cause duplicate IP addresses in a network?

A.
Rogue DHCP server
A.
Rogue DHCP server
Answers
B.
DNS poisoning
B.
DNS poisoning
Answers
C.
Social engineering
C.
Social engineering
Answers
D.
Denial-of-service
D.
Denial-of-service
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Definition of a Rogue DHCP Server:

A rogue DHCP server is an unauthorized DHCP server on a network, which can assign IP addresses to devices without proper control, leading to IP address conflicts.

Impact of a Rogue DHCP Server:

IP Address Conflicts: Multiple devices may receive the same IP address from different DHCP servers, causing network connectivity issues.

Network Disruption: Devices may be assigned incorrect network configuration settings, disrupting network services and connectivity.

Comparison with Other Attacks:

DNS poisoning: Alters DNS records to redirect traffic to malicious sites, but does not cause IP address conflicts.

Social engineering: Involves manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access or information, not directly related to IP address conflicts.

Denial-of-service (DoS): Floods a network or service with excessive traffic to disrupt operations, but does not cause duplicate IP addresses.

Prevention and Detection:

Implement network access control measures to prevent unauthorized devices from acting as DHCP servers.

Use DHCP snooping on switches to allow DHCP responses only from authorized DHCP servers.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security threats and mitigation techniques.

A network administrator is deploying a new switch and wants to make sure that the default priority value was set for a spanning tree. Which of the following values would the network administrator expect to see?

A.
4096
A.
4096
Answers
B.
8192
B.
8192
Answers
C.
32768
C.
32768
Answers
D.
36684
D.
36684
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Understanding Spanning Tree Protocol (STP):

STP is used to prevent network loops in Ethernet networks by creating a spanning tree that selectively blocks some redundant paths.

Default Priority Value:

Bridge Priority: STP uses bridge priority to determine which switch becomes the root bridge. The default bridge priority value for most switches is 32768.

Priority Range: The bridge priority can be set in increments of 4096, ranging from 0 to 61440.

Configuration and Verification:

When deploying a new switch, the network administrator can verify the bridge priority using commands such as show spanning-tree to ensure it is set to the default value of 32768.

Comparison with Other Values:

4096 and 8192: Lower than the default priority, indicating these would be manually configured for higher preference.

36684: A non-standard value, likely a result of specific configuration changes.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on Spanning Tree Protocol and network configuration.

Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology should a technician take to confirm a theory?

A.
Duplicate the problem.
A.
Duplicate the problem.
Answers
B.
Identify the symptoms.
B.
Identify the symptoms.
Answers
C.
Gather information.
C.
Gather information.
Answers
D.
Determine any changes.
D.
Determine any changes.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Troubleshooting Methodology:

Troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to diagnosing and resolving issues. It typically includes steps such as identifying symptoms, gathering information, formulating and testing theories, and implementing solutions.

Confirming a Theory:

Duplicate the Problem: To confirm a theory, the technician should reproduce the problem in a controlled environment. This helps verify that the identified cause actually leads to the observed issue.

Verification: By duplicating the problem, the technician can observe the issue firsthand, validate the hypothesis, and rule out other potential causes.

Comparison with Other Steps:

Identify the Symptoms: Initial step to understand what the problem is, not specifically for confirming a theory.

Gather Information: Involves collecting data and details about the issue, usually done before formulating a theory.

Determine Any Changes: Involves checking for recent changes that could have caused the issue, a part of the information-gathering phase.

Implementation:

Use similar equipment or software in a test environment to recreate the issue.

Observe the results to see if they match the original problem, thereby confirming the theory.

CompTIA Network+ study materials on troubleshooting methodologies and best practices.

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