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As a program manager you must also understand the project management lifecycle and the project lifecycle. What is the difference between the two?
To create market advantage, a program sponsor requests accelerating the implementation of a new manufacturing process that is based on a recently improved system component. The program manager is concerned that the delivery of some program goals could be jeopardized. What should the program manager do?
A program manager initiates a developmental program. Significant resources and funding are required for early activities until the program cost and budget estimates are complete. What should the program manager do to understand the financial environment?
Part of program management is to understand how the communication model works in a program. The program manager must be able to effectively communicate with the program team and stakeholders. What component of the communication model is responsible for carrying the message?
The program selection committee presents several programs for approval: Program A is estimated to cost US$250,000, and has an annual cash inflow of US$75,000. Program B is estimated to cost US$150,000, and has an annual cash inflow of US$55,000. Program C is estimated to cost US$100,000, and has an annual cash inflow of US$45,000. Program D is estimated to cost US$200,000, and has an annual cash inflow of US$35,000. Which program was selected based solely on a three-year return on investment?
The program charter for a new, five-component program has been approved. What should the program manager use to communicate the program's intended direction and the linkage between organizational strategies and planned work?
You are the program manager for a construction program. In this program you are requiring that all workers adhere to the identified safety requirements. Some of the work in the program you've decided is too risky for the program team members so you've hired specialists to manage the dangerous work. The outsourcing of the dangerous work to a specialist is what type of risk response?
You are the program manager for your organization. You're currently working with the program director, Nancy Holmes, to define a new program and the benefits the program should create. Of the following, which is the best definition of a benefit a program creates?
The program manager plans to address a negative cost variance generating a red flag in the program management status report. What should the program manager do?
A company's marketing department fails an internal compliance audit. To comply with the auditor's remediation plan, the legal department mandates that a content management system (CMS) be implemented. After initiating the program for CMS implementation, the program manager discovers that the marketing department has already preselected which CMS technology will be implemented. What should the program manager do to ensure the success of the program?

Question 154 - PgMP discussion

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You are the program manager of the NQA Program. In this program you're planning which contract types you'll allow into the program and which ones you will not. One contract type you won't accept is the cost plus percentage of cost contract. Which of the following is a valid reason you would not allow this contract type into your program?

A.
The contract type requires the vendor to provide a fee for the time invested and the materials used.
Answers
A.
The contract type requires the vendor to provide a fee for the time invested and the materials used.
B.
The contract type allows the vendor to change the price of the work he's completed.
Answers
B.
The contract type allows the vendor to change the price of the work he's completed.
C.
The contract type allows is the most dangerous for the buyer.
Answers
C.
The contract type allows is the most dangerous for the buyer.
D.
The contract type requires the vendor to provide a fixed price for the work.
Answers
D.
The contract type requires the vendor to provide a fixed price for the work.
Suggested answer: C
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asked 23/09/2024
Martin Lundgren
39 questions
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