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An administrator is troubleshooting connectivity to a remote server. The goal is to remotely connect to the server to make configuration changes. To further troubleshoot, a port scan revealed the ports on the server as follows:

Port 22: Closed

Port 23: Open

Port 990: Closed

Which of the following next steps should the administrator take?

Reboot the workstation and then the server.

A.
Open port 990 and close port 23.
A.
Open port 990 and close port 23.
Answers
B.
Open port 22 and close port 23.
B.
Open port 22 and close port 23.
Answers
C.
Open all of the ports listed.
C.
Open all of the ports listed.
Answers
D.
Close all of the ports listed.
D.
Close all of the ports listed.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a secure and encrypted protocol for remote access to a server. Port 23 is used for Telnet, which is an insecure and unencrypted protocol for remote access. Port 990 is used for FTPS (File Transfer Protocol Secure), which is a secure and encrypted protocol for file transfer. The administrator should open port 22 and close port 23 to enable SSH and disable Telnet, as SSH is more secure and reliable than Telnet. The administrator does not need to open port 990, as FTPS is not required for making configuration changes123.

References = 1: Remote Desktop - Allow access to your PC from outside your network(https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/remote/remote-desktop-services/clients/remote-desktop-allow-outside-access) 2: Test remote network port connection in Windows 10 - Winaero(https://winaero.com/test-remote-network-port-connection-in-windows-10/) 3: Windows Command to check if a remote server port is opened?(https://superuser.com/questions/1035018/windows-command-to-check-if-a-remote-server-port-is-opened)

A server administrator has received tickets from users who report the system runs very slowly and various unrelated messages pop up when they try to access an internet-facing web application using default ports. The administrator performs a scan to check for open ports and reviews the following report:

Starting Nmap 7.70 https://nmap.org) at 2019-09-19 14:30 UTC

Nmap scan report for www.abc.com (172.45.6.85)

Host is up (0.0021s latency)

Other addresses for www.abc.com (not scanned) : 4503 : F7b0 : 4293: 703: : 3209

RDNS record for 172.45.6.85: 1ga45s12-in-f1.2d100.net

Port State Service

21/tcp filtered ftp

22/tcp filtered ssh

23/tcp filtered telnet

69/tcp open @username.com

80/tcp open http

110/tcp filtered pop

143/tcp filtered imap

443/tcp open https

1010/tcp open www.popup.com

3389/tcp filtered ms-abc-server

Which of the following actions should the server administrator perform on the server?

A.
Close ports 69 and 1010 and rerun the scan.
A.
Close ports 69 and 1010 and rerun the scan.
Answers
B.
Close ports 80 and 443 and rerun the scan.
B.
Close ports 80 and 443 and rerun the scan.
Answers
C.
Close port 3389 and rerun the scan.
C.
Close port 3389 and rerun the scan.
Answers
D.
Close all ports and rerun the scan.
D.
Close all ports and rerun the scan.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Port 69 is used for TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), which is an insecure and unencrypted protocol for file transfer. Port 1010 is used for a malicious website that generates pop-up ads. Both of these ports are likely to be exploited by hackers or malware to compromise the server or the web application. The server administrator should close these ports and rerun the scan to verify that they are no longer open12.

References = 1: Why Are Some Network Ports Risky, And How Do You Secure Them? - How-To Geek(https://www.howtogeek.com/devops/why-are-some-ports-risky-and-how-do-you-secure-them/) 2: Switchport Port Security Explained With Examples - ComputerNetworkingNotes(https://www.computernetworkingnotes.com/ccna-study-guide/switchport-port-security-explained-with-examples.html)

Which of the following license types most commonly describes a product that incurs a yearly cost regardless of how much it is used?

A.
Physical
A.
Physical
Answers
B.
Subscription
B.
Subscription
Answers
C.
Open-source
C.
Open-source
Answers
D.
Per instance
D.
Per instance
Answers
E.
Per concurrent user
E.
Per concurrent user
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A subscription license is a type of license that grants the user the right to use a product or service for a fixed period of time, usually a year. The user pays a recurring fee, regardless of how much they use the product or service. Subscription licenses are common for cloud-based software and services, such as Microsoft 3651 or DocuSign2.

References = 1: Compare All Microsoft 365 Plans (Formerly Office 365) - Microsoft Store(https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/buy/compare-all-microsoft-365-products) 2: DocuSign Pricing | eSignature Plans for Personal & Business(https://ecom.docusign.com/plans-and-pricing/esignature)

An administrator is troubleshooting a server that is rebooting and crashing. The administrator notices that the server is making sounds that are louder than usual. Upon closer inspection, the administrator discovers that the noises are coming from the front of the chassis. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this behavior?

A.
One of the fans has failed.
A.
One of the fans has failed.
Answers
B.
The power supply has failed.
B.
The power supply has failed.
Answers
C.
The RAM is malfunctioning.
C.
The RAM is malfunctioning.
Answers
D.
The CPU is overheating.
D.
The CPU is overheating.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A server has multiple fans inside the chassis to cool down the components and prevent overheating. If one of the fans fails, it can cause the server to reboot and crash due to thermal issues. A failed fan can also make loud noises due to friction or vibration.The administrator should check the fans and clean them from dust and debris, or replace them if they are damaged12.

References=1: It's Too Loud!3 Solutions to Remedy Server Noise - Computerware Blog | DC Metro | Computerware Blog(https://www.cwit.com/blog/it-s-too-loud-3-solutions-to-remedy-server-noise)2: What factors affect the noise level of a server? - Server Fault(https://serverfault.com/questions/430550/what-factors-affect-the-noise-level-of-a-server)

A server administrator is tasked with upgrading the network on a server to 40Gbps. After installing the card, which of the following connectors should the administrator use?

A.
QSFP+
A.
QSFP+
Answers
B.
10 GigE
B.
10 GigE
Answers
C.
SFP
C.
SFP
Answers
D.
SFP+
D.
SFP+
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus):This transceiver type is designed specifically to handle 40Gbps network speeds. QSFP+ connectors are hot-swappable and support various cable types, including fiber optic and copper (DAC).

10GigE:While a valid network technology, 10GigE only supports up to 10Gbps, not the required 40Gbps.

SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable):A common transceiver type, but the standard SFP only supports a maximum of 1Gbps.

SFP+ (Enhanced Small Form-factor Pluggable):Supports up to 10Gbps, not sufficient for 40Gbps in this scenario.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives(Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Search for sections on networking standards and transceiver types.

Which of the following describes the concept of allocating more resources than what is available on a hypervisor?

A.
Direct access
A.
Direct access
Answers
B.
Overprovisioning
B.
Overprovisioning
Answers
C.
Link aggregation
C.
Link aggregation
Answers
D.
Component redundancy
D.
Component redundancy
Answers
E.
Scalability
E.
Scalability
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Overprovisioning:Involves allocating more virtual resources (e.g., CPU, RAM, storage) to virtual machines than the total physical resources available on a hypervisor. The idea is for resources to be dynamically shared, assuming not all VMs will demand their maximum allocation simultaneously.

Direct Access:This usually refers to technologies like RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access) that allow for very low-latency, direct access to the memory of another computer over a network.

Link Aggregation:The practice of combining multiple physical network links to create a single logical link with increased bandwidth.

Component Redundancy:Refers to having multiple hardware components (e.g., power supplies, hard drives) to provide fault tolerance.

Scalability:The ability of a system to adapt and handle increased workloads by adding resources.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives(Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Review the sections on virtualization concepts.

Virtualization Technology Documentation:Refer to documentation for popular hypervisors like VMware vSphere, Microsoft Hyper-V, or open-source solutions.

Which of the following distributes a load across all interfaces?

A.
Link aggregation group
A.
Link aggregation group
Answers
B.
Most recently used algorithm
B.
Most recently used algorithm
Answers
C.
Active-passive configuration
C.
Active-passive configuration
Answers
D.
Failover
D.
Failover
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Link Aggregation:Involves combining multiple physical network interfaces into a single logical interface. This creates increased bandwidth, improved fault tolerance, and load balancing, where traffic can be distributed across all links in the group. (CompTIA Server+ Objectives SK0-004: 2.4)

Why other options are incorrect:

Most recently used algorithm:A concept used in memory management, not network traffic distribution.

Active-passive configuration:Used for failover with only one interface active at a time.

Failover:Ensures service continuity if an interface fails but does not inherently distribute load across multiple links.

A technician is installing an OS on ten servers. Which of the following media installation types would allow for the fastest installation time?

A.
Network
A.
Network
Answers
B.
Embedded
B.
Embedded
Answers
C.
Optical
C.
Optical
Answers
D.
USB
D.
USB
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Network Installation:Allows the OS image to be deployed from a central server, streamlining deployment across multiple systems simultaneously. This is significantly faster than individual installations from other media. (CompTIA Server+ Objectives SK0-004: 3.1)

Why other options are less optimal:

Embedded:Refers to OSes pre-installed on hardware and not intended for mass deployment.

Optical (CDs/DVDs):Requires physical media insertion on each server, slower than network distribution.

USBSimilar to optical, requires individual installations and can be time-consuming for multiple servers.

A web server that is being deployed in the perimeter network needs to be shielded from malicious traffic. Which of the following could help identify these threats?

A.
Applying OS updates
A.
Applying OS updates
Answers
B.
Disabling unused services
B.
Disabling unused services
Answers
C.
Implementing HIDS
C.
Implementing HIDS
Answers
D.
Installing anti-malware
D.
Installing anti-malware
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

HIDS (Host Intrusion Detection System):Continuously monitors a system for suspicious activity and logs or raises alerts when potential threats are identified. This proactive approach is crucial for identifying and mitigating threats on a web server exposed to the external network.

Applying OS updates:While essential for maintaining system security, updates address vulnerabilities and may not necessarily identify ongoing threats.

Disabling unused services:Reduces the attack surface by minimizing potential entry points for malicious actors, but doesn't actively identify threats.

Installing anti-malware:Primarily designed to detect and remove malware after infection, not for ongoing threat identification.

References:

CompTIA Server+ Objectives(Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Search for sections on intrusion detection and prevention.

A technician is setting up a repurposed server. The minimum requirements are 2TB while ensuring the highest performance and providing support for one drive failure. The technician has the following six drives available:

Which of the following drive selections should the technician utilize to best accomplish this goal?

A.
1,2, 4, and 6
A.
1,2, 4, and 6
Answers
B.
1, 2, 3, 5, and 6
B.
1, 2, 3, 5, and 6
Answers
C.
1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
C.
1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
Answers
D.
1, 2, 3, 4, and 6
D.
1, 2, 3, 4, and 6
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

RAID 5 configuration:Using five of the available drives in a RAID 5 configuration meets the requirements for:

Storage capacity:Four 600GB drives (2, 5, and 6) provide a total usable capacity of 2.4TB (4 * 600 * 0.8), exceeding the minimum requirement of 2TB. RAID 5 introduces parity data for fault tolerance, sacrificing some usable space (one drive's worth).

Performance:The combination of multiple drives in a RAID 5 array improves read performance compared to a single drive setup.

Fault tolerance:Even with a single drive failure (any of the five drives used in the RAID 5), the remaining drives can reconstruct the lost data, allowing the server to continue operating.

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