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A server is reporting a hard drive S.M.A.R.T. error. When a technician checks on the drive, however, it appears that all drives in the server are functioning normally. Which of the following is the reason for this issue?

A.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible
A.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible
Answers
B.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested a retransmission of the write from the controller
B.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a write operation error. It has detected that the write sent to the drive was incorrectly formatted and has requested a retransmission of the write from the controller
Answers
C.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly
C.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is simply a bad sector. The drive has marked the sector as bad and will continue to function properly
Answers
D.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.
D.
A S.M.A.R.T. error is an ECC error. Due to error checking and correcting, the drive has corrected the missing bit and completed the write operation correctly.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A S.M.A.R.T. error is a predictive failure notice. The drive will fail in the near future and should be replaced at the next earliest time possible. S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology) is a feature that monitors the health and performance of hard drives and alerts the user of any potential problems or failures. S.M.A.R.T. can detect various indicators of drive degradation, such as bad sectors, read/write errors, temperature, or spin-up time. If a S.M.A.R.T. error is reported, it means that the drive has exceeded a predefined threshold of acceptable operation and is likely to fail soon. The drive may still function normally for a while, but it is recommended to back up the data and replace the drive as soon as possible to avoid data loss or system downtime.

A server administrator has been creating new VMs one by one. The administrator notices the system requirements are very similar, even with different applications. Which of the following would help the administrator accomplish this task in the SHORTEST amount of time and meet the system requirements?

A.
Snapshot
A.
Snapshot
Answers
B.
Deduplication
B.
Deduplication
Answers
C.
System Restore
C.
System Restore
Answers
D.
Template
D.
Template
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The method that would help the administrator accomplish the task of creating new VMs in the shortest amount of time and meet the system requirements is template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.

Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting theory should be performed after a solution has been implemented? (Choose two.)

A.
Perform a root cause analysis
A.
Perform a root cause analysis
Answers
B.
Develop a plan of action
B.
Develop a plan of action
Answers
C.
Document the findings
C.
Document the findings
Answers
D.
Escalate the issue
D.
Escalate the issue
Answers
E.
Scope the issue
E.
Scope the issue
Answers
F.
Notify the users
F.
Notify the users
Answers
Suggested answer: C, F

Explanation:

The steps in the troubleshooting theory that should be performed after a solution has been implemented are document the findings and notify the users. The troubleshooting theory is a systematic process of identifying and resolving problems or issues with a system or device. The troubleshooting theory consists of several steps that can be summarized as follows:

Identify the problem: Gather information, scope the issue, establish a theory of probable cause. Establish a plan of action: Test the theory, determine next steps, escalate if necessary. Implement the solution: Execute the plan, verify functionality, prevent recurrence. Document the findings: Record actions taken, outcomes achieved, lessons learned. Notify the users: Communicate resolution status, confirm satisfaction, provide follow-up. Documenting the findings is an important step that helps create a record of what was done and why, what worked and what didn’t, and what can be improved or avoided in the future. Documenting the findings can also help with reporting, auditing, compliance, or training purposes. Notifying the users is another important step that helps inform the affected parties of what was done and how it was resolved, confirm that the problem is fixed and that they are satisfied with the outcome, and provide any follow-up instructions or recommendations.

Which of the following allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure?

A.
Midplane
A.
Midplane
Answers
B.
Active backplane
B.
Active backplane
Answers
C.
Passive backplane
C.
Passive backplane
Answers
D.
Management module
D.
Management module
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The component that allows for a connection of devices to both sides inside of a blade enclosure is midplane. A midplane is a board or panel that connects two sets of connectors or devices in parallel with each other. A midplane is typically used in blade enclosures or chassis to provide power and data connections between blade servers on one side and power supplies, cooling fans, switches, or management modules on the other side. A midplane can also act as a backplane by providing bus signals or communication channels between devices.

A snapshot is a feature that can be used in hypervisors to:

A.
roll back firmware updates.
A.
roll back firmware updates.
Answers
B.
restore to a previous version.
B.
restore to a previous version.
Answers
C.
roll back application drivers.
C.
roll back application drivers.
Answers
D.
perform a backup restore.
D.
perform a backup restore.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A snapshot is a feature that can be used in hypervisors to restore to a previous version. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of a virtual machine (VM) that captures the state and data of the VM at a specific moment. A snapshot can be created instantly and with minimal overhead, as it only stores the changes made to the VM after the snapshot was taken. A snapshot can be used to restore the VM to its previous state in case of data loss or corruption.

A server administrator needs to deploy five VMs, all of which must have the same type of configuration. Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to perform this task?

A.
Snapshot a VM.
A.
Snapshot a VM.
Answers
B.
Use a physical host.
B.
Use a physical host.
Answers
C.
Perform a P2V conversion.
C.
Perform a P2V conversion.
Answers
D.
Use a VM template.
D.
Use a VM template.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Deploying a virtual machine from a template creates a virtual machine that is a copy of the template. The new virtual machine has the virtual hardware, installed software, and other properties that are configured for the template.

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/

6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc/GUID-8254CD05-CC06-491D-BA56- A773A32A8130.html

The most efficient way to perform the task of deploying five VMs with the same type of configuration is to use a VM template. A template is a preconfigured virtual machine image that contains an operating system, applications, settings, and other components. A template can be used to create multiple identical or customized VMs quickly and easily, without having to install and configure each VM from scratch. A template can save time and ensure consistency across VMs.

A global organization keeps personnel application servers that are local to each country. However, a security audit shows these application servers are accessible from sites in other countries. Which of the following hardening techniques should the organization use to restrict access to only sites that are in the same country?

A.
Configure a firewall
A.
Configure a firewall
Answers
B.
Close the unneeded ports
B.
Close the unneeded ports
Answers
C.
Install a HIDS
C.
Install a HIDS
Answers
D.
Disable unneeded services.
D.
Disable unneeded services.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Monitors Network Traffic

Reference: https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/benefits-of-firewall

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a datacenter is concerned that transmissions from the building can be detected from the outside. Which of the following would resolve this concern? (Choose two.)

A.
RFID
A.
RFID
Answers
B.
Proximity readers
B.
Proximity readers
Answers
C.
Signal blocking
C.
Signal blocking
Answers
D.
Camouflage
D.
Camouflage
Answers
E.
Reflective glass
E.
Reflective glass
Answers
F.
Bollards
F.
Bollards
Answers
Suggested answer: C, E

Explanation:

The best solutions to resolve the concern of transmissions from the building being detected from outside are signal blocking and reflective glass. Signal blocking is a method of preventing or interfering with electromagnetic signals from escaping or entering a certain area. Signal blocking can be achieved by using various materials or devices that create physical barriers or generate noise or jamming signals. Signal blocking can protect data transmissions from being intercepted or eavesdropped by unauthorized parties. Reflective glass is a type of glass that has a coating or film that reflects light and heat. Reflective glass can reduce glare and solar radiation, as well as prevent visual observation from outside. Reflective glass can enhance privacy and security for datacenter operations.

A server administrator is configuring the IP address on a newly provisioned server in the testing environment. The network VLANs are configured as follows:

The administrator configures the IP address for the new server as follows:

IP address: 192.168.1.1/24

Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

A ping sent to the default gateway is not successful. Which of the following IP address/default gateway combinations should the administrator have used for the new server?

A.
IP address: 192.168.10.2/24Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
A.
IP address: 192.168.10.2/24Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
Answers
B.
IP address: 192.168.1.2/24Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
B.
IP address: 192.168.1.2/24Default gateway: 192.168.10.1
Answers
C.
IP address: 192.168.10.3/24Default gateway: 192.168.20.1
C.
IP address: 192.168.10.3/24Default gateway: 192.168.20.1
Answers
D.
IP address: 192.168.10.24/24Default gateway: 192.168.30.1
D.
IP address: 192.168.10.24/24Default gateway: 192.168.30.1
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The IP address/default gateway combination that the administrator should have used for the new server is IP address: 192.168.10.2/24 and Default gateway: 192.168.10.1. The IP address and the default gateway of a device must be in the same subnet to communicate with each other. A subnet is a logical division of a network that allows devices to share a common prefix of their IP addresses. The subnet mask determines how many bits of the IP address are used for the network prefix and how many bits are used for the host identifier. A /24 subnet mask means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are used for the network prefix and the last 8 bits are used for the host identifier. Therefore, any IP address that has the same first 24 bits as the default gateway belongs to the same subnet. In this case, the default gateway has an IP address of 192.168.10.1/24, which means that any IP address that starts with 192.168.10.x/24 belongs to the same subnet. The new server has an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24, which does not match the first 24 bits of the default gateway, so it belongs to a different subnet and cannot communicate with the default gateway. To fix this issue, the administrator should change the IP address of the new server to an unused IP address that starts with 192.168.10.x/24, such as 192.168.10.2/24.

A server administrator is configuring a new server that will hold large amounts of information. The server will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time. Which of the following server roles will the administrator MOST likely need to install?

A.
Messaging
A.
Messaging
Answers
B.
Application
B.
Application
Answers
C.
Print
C.
Print
Answers
D.
Database
D.
Database
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Few people are expected to use the database at the same time and users don’t need to customize the design of the database.

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/ways-to-share-an-access-desktop-database- 03822632-da43-4d8f-ba2a-68da245a0446

The server role that the administrator will most likely need to install for a server that will hold large amounts of information and will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time is database. A database is a collection of structured data that can be stored, queried, manipulated, and analyzed using various methods and tools. A database server is a server that hosts one or more databases and provides access to them over a network. A database server can handle large amounts of information and support concurrent requests from multiple users or applications.

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