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A company implemented an MDM policy 10 mitigate risks after repealed instances of employees losing company-provided mobile phones. In several cases. The lost phones were used maliciously to perform social engineering attacks against other employees. Which of the following MDM features should be configured to best address this issue? (Select two).

A.
Screen locks
A.
Screen locks
Answers
B.
Remote wipe
B.
Remote wipe
Answers
C.
Full device encryption
C.
Full device encryption
Answers
D.
Push notifications
D.
Push notifications
Answers
E.
Application management
E.
Application management
Answers
F.
Geolocation
F.
Geolocation
Answers
Suggested answer: A, B

Explanation:

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.

A security analyst needs to propose a remediation plan 'or each item in a risk register. The item with the highest priority requires employees to have separate logins for SaaS solutions and different password complexity requirements for each solution. Which of the following implementation plans will most likely resolve this security issue?

A.
Creating a unified password complexity standard
A.
Creating a unified password complexity standard
Answers
B.
Integrating each SaaS solution with the Identity provider
B.
Integrating each SaaS solution with the Identity provider
Answers
C.
Securing access to each SaaS by using a single wildcard certificate
C.
Securing access to each SaaS by using a single wildcard certificate
Answers
D.
Configuring geofencing on each SaaS solution
D.
Configuring geofencing on each SaaS solution
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.

A security analyst finds a rogue device during a monthly audit of current endpoint assets that are connected to the network. The corporate network utilizes 002.1X for access control. To be allowed on the network, a device must have a Known hardware address, and a valid user name and password must be entered in a captive portal. The following is the audit report:

Which of the following is the most likely way a rogue device was allowed to connect?

A.
A user performed a MAC cloning attack with a personal device.
A.
A user performed a MAC cloning attack with a personal device.
Answers
B.
A DMCP failure caused an incorrect IP address to be distributed
B.
A DMCP failure caused an incorrect IP address to be distributed
Answers
C.
An administrator bypassed the security controls for testing.
C.
An administrator bypassed the security controls for testing.
Answers
D.
DNS hijacking let an attacker intercept the captive portal traffic.
D.
DNS hijacking let an attacker intercept the captive portal traffic.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing.

Which of the following is the first step to take when creating an anomaly detection process?

A.
Selecting events
A.
Selecting events
Answers
B.
Building a baseline
B.
Building a baseline
Answers
C.
Selecting logging options
C.
Selecting logging options
Answers
D.
Creating an event log
D.
Creating an event log
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The first step in creating an anomaly detection process is building a baseline of normal behavior within the system. This baseline serves as a reference point to identify deviations or anomalies that could indicate a security incident. By understanding what normal activity looks like, security teams can more effectively detect and respond to suspicious behavior.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Monitoring and Baselines.

Which of the following is the final step of the modem response process?

A.
Lessons learned
A.
Lessons learned
Answers
B.
Eradication
B.
Eradication
Answers
C.
Containment
C.
Containment
Answers
D.
Recovery
D.
Recovery
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The final step in the incident response process is 'Lessons learned.' This step involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and what could be improved. The goal is to improve future response efforts and prevent similar incidents from occurring. It's essential for refining the incident response plan and enhancing overall security posture.

Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of incident response and recovery.

While investigating a recent security breach an analyst finds that an attacker gained access by SOL infection through a company website. Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the website developers to prevent this from reoccurring?

A.
Secure cookies
A.
Secure cookies
Answers
B.
Input sanitization
B.
Input sanitization
Answers
C.
Code signing
C.
Code signing
Answers
D.
Blocklist
D.
Blocklist
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Input sanitization is a critical security measure to prevent SQL injection attacks, which occur when an attacker exploits vulnerabilities in a website's input fields to execute malicious SQL code. By properly sanitizing and validating all user inputs, developers can prevent malicious code from being executed, thereby securing the website against such attacks.

Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common vulnerability mitigation strategies.

Which of the following environments utilizes a subset of customer data and is most likely to be used to assess the impacts of major system upgrades and demonstrate system features?

A.
Development
A.
Development
Answers
B.
Test
B.
Test
Answers
C.
Production
C.
Production
Answers
D.
Staging
D.
Staging
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A staging environment is a controlled setting that closely mirrors the production environment but uses a subset of customer data. It is used to test major system upgrades, assess their impact, and demonstrate new features before they are rolled out to the live production environment. This ensures that any issues can be identified and addressed in a safe environment before affecting end-users.

Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of secure system development and testing environments.

An organization recently started hosting a new service that customers access through a web portal. A security engineer needs to add to the existing security devices a new solution to protect this new service. Which of the following is the engineer most likely to deploy?

A.
Layer 4 firewall
A.
Layer 4 firewall
Answers
B.
NGFW
B.
NGFW
Answers
C.
WAF
C.
WAF
Answers
D.
UTM
D.
UTM
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The security engineer is likely to deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) to protect the new web portal service. A WAF specifically protects web applications by filtering, monitoring, and blocking HTTP requests based on a set of rules. This is crucial for preventing common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web-based attacks that could compromise the web service.

Layer 4 firewall operates primarily at the transport layer, focusing on IP address and port filtering, making it unsuitable for web application-specific threats.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) provides more advanced filtering than traditional firewalls, including layer 7 inspection, but the WAF is tailored specifically for web traffic.

UTM (Unified Threat Management) offers a suite of security tools in one package (like antivirus, firewall, and content filtering), but for web application-specific protection, a WAF is the best fit.

An IT manager is putting together a documented plan describing how the organization will keep operating in the event of a global incident. Which of the following plans is the IT manager creating?

A.
Business continuity
A.
Business continuity
Answers
B.
Physical security
B.
Physical security
Answers
C.
Change management
C.
Change management
Answers
D.
Disaster recovery
D.
Disaster recovery
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The IT manager is creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). A BCP describes how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disaster or global incident. It ensures that critical business functions remain operational despite adverse conditions, with a focus on minimizing downtime and maintaining essential services.

Physical security relates to protecting physical assets.

Change management ensures changes in IT systems are introduced smoothly, without disrupting operations.

Disaster recovery is a subset of business continuity but focuses specifically on recovering from IT-related incidents.

Which of the following topics would most likely be included within an organization's SDLC?

A.
Service-level agreements
A.
Service-level agreements
Answers
B.
Information security policy
B.
Information security policy
Answers
C.
Penetration testing methodology
C.
Penetration testing methodology
Answers
D.
Branch protection requirements
D.
Branch protection requirements
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Within an organization's Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), an Information Security Policy is a vital component. It outlines the rules and procedures for ensuring that the organization's IT assets and data are protected throughout the development process. Ensuring secure coding practices, access controls, and regular security testing is fundamental in preventing vulnerabilities in applications.

Other options like service-level agreements and branch protection requirements are less likely to be integral to SDLC processes. Penetration testing methodology, while useful, is generally considered outside the scope of the SDLC.

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