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A bank set up a new server that contains customers' Pll. Which of the following should the bank use to make sure the sensitive data is not modified?

A.
Full disk encryption
A.
Full disk encryption
Answers
B.
Network access control
B.
Network access control
Answers
C.
File integrity monitoring
C.
File integrity monitoring
Answers
D.
User behavior analytics
D.
User behavior analytics
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

To ensure that sensitive data, such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), is not modified, the bank should implement file integrity monitoring (FIM). FIM tracks changes to files and provides alerts if unauthorized modifications are detected, ensuring data integrity.

Full disk encryption protects data at rest but does not prevent or monitor modifications.

Network access control (NAC) manages access to the network but doesn't monitor file changes.

User behavior analytics (UBA) detects suspicious user activities but is not focused on file integrity.

A legacy device is being decommissioned and is no longer receiving updates or patches. Which of the following describes this scenario?

A.
End of business
A.
End of business
Answers
B.
End of testing
B.
End of testing
Answers
C.
End of support
C.
End of support
Answers
D.
End of life
D.
End of life
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

When a legacy device is no longer receiving updates or patches, it is considered to be at the end of life (EOL). This means the manufacturer has ceased support for the device, and it will no longer receive updates, security patches, or technical assistance. EOL devices pose security risks and are often decommissioned or replaced.

End of support may seem similar but typically refers to the cessation of technical support, whereas EOL means the device is fully retired.

End of business and End of testing do not apply in this context.

Employees located off-site must have access to company resources in order to complete their assigned tasks These employees utilize a solution that allows remote access without interception concerns. Which of the following best describes this solution?

A.
Proxy server
A.
Proxy server
Answers
B.
NGFW
B.
NGFW
Answers
C.
VPN
C.
VPN
Answers
D.
Security zone
D.
Security zone
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the best solution to allow remote employees secure access to company resources without interception concerns. A VPN establishes an encrypted tunnel over the internet, ensuring that data transferred between remote employees and the company is secure from eavesdropping.

Proxy server helps with web content filtering and anonymization but does not provide encrypted access.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) enhances security but is not the primary tool for enabling remote access.

Security zone is a network segmentation technique but does not provide remote access capabilities.

Which of the following alert types is the most likely to be ignored over time?

A.
True positive
A.
True positive
Answers
B.
True negative
B.
True negative
Answers
C.
False positive
C.
False positive
Answers
D.
False negative
D.
False negative
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A false positive is an alert that incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious. Over time, if an alerting system generates too many false positives, security teams are likely to ignore these alerts, resulting in 'alert fatigue.' This increases the risk of missing genuine threats.

True positives and true negatives are accurate and should be acted upon.

False negatives are more dangerous because they fail to identify real threats, but they are not 'ignored' since they do not trigger alerts.

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) at a large company would like to gain an understanding of how the company's security policies compare to the requirements imposed by external regulators. Which of the following should the CISO use?

A.
Penetration test
A.
Penetration test
Answers
B.
Internal audit
B.
Internal audit
Answers
C.
Attestation
C.
Attestation
Answers
D.
External examination
D.
External examination
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An external examination (also known as an external audit or external review) is the best method for the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to gain an understanding of how the company's security policies compare to external regulatory requirements. External examinations are conducted by third-party entities that assess an organization's compliance with laws, regulations, and industry standards.

Penetration tests focus on identifying vulnerabilities, not compliance.

Internal audits assess internal controls but are not impartial or focused on regulatory requirements.

Attestation is a formal declaration but does not involve the actual evaluation of compliance.

A systems administrator notices that one of the systems critical for processing customer transactions is running an end-of-life operating system. Which of the following techniques would increase enterprise security?

A.
Installing HIDS on the system
A.
Installing HIDS on the system
Answers
B.
Placing the system in an isolated VLAN
B.
Placing the system in an isolated VLAN
Answers
C.
Decommissioning the system
C.
Decommissioning the system
Answers
D.
Encrypting the system's hard drive
D.
Encrypting the system's hard drive
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

To enhance security for a system running an end-of-life operating system, placing the system in an isolated VLAN is the most effective approach. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, you can limit its exposure to potential threats while maintaining its functionality. This segmentation helps protect the rest of the network from any vulnerabilities in the outdated system.

Installing HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) can help detect intrusions but won't mitigate the risks posed by an unsupported OS.

Decommissioning may not be feasible if the system is critical.

Encrypting the system's hard drive protects data at rest but doesn't address vulnerabilities from an outdated OS.

An organization is adopting cloud services at a rapid pace and now has multiple SaaS applications in use. Each application has a separate log-in. so the security team wants to reduce the number of credentials each employee must maintain. Which of the following is the first step the security team should take?

A.
Enable SAML
A.
Enable SAML
Answers
B.
Create OAuth tokens.
B.
Create OAuth tokens.
Answers
C.
Use password vaulting.
C.
Use password vaulting.
Answers
D.
Select an IdP
D.
Select an IdP
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The first step in reducing the number of credentials each employee must maintain when using multiple SaaS applications is to select an Identity Provider (IdP). An IdP provides a centralized authentication service that supports Single Sign-On (SSO), enabling users to access multiple applications with a single set of credentials.

Enabling SAML would be part of the technical implementation but comes after selecting an IdP.

OAuth tokens are used for authorization, but selecting an IdP is the first step in managing authentication.

Password vaulting stores multiple passwords securely but doesn't reduce the need for separate logins.

Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?

A.
To track the status of patching installations
A.
To track the status of patching installations
Answers
B.
To find shadow IT cloud deployments
B.
To find shadow IT cloud deployments
Answers
C.
To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
C.
To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
Answers
D.
To hunt for active attackers in the network
D.
To hunt for active attackers in the network
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.

Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.

Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans.

Which of the following threat vectors is most commonly utilized by insider threat actors attempting data exfiltration?

A.
Unidentified removable devices
A.
Unidentified removable devices
Answers
B.
Default network device credentials
B.
Default network device credentials
Answers
C.
Spear phishing emails
C.
Spear phishing emails
Answers
D.
Impersonation of business units through typosquatting
D.
Impersonation of business units through typosquatting
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Unidentified removable devices, such as USB drives, are a common threat vector for insider threat actors attempting data exfiltration. Insiders can easily use these devices to transfer sensitive data out of the organization undetected, making it one of the most commonly utilized methods for data theft.

Default network device credentials are a security vulnerability but not typically used for data exfiltration.

Spear phishing emails are used for external attacks, not insider data exfiltration.

Impersonation through typosquatting is typically used by external actors for phishing or fraud.

A new employee logs in to the email system for the first time and notices a message from human resources about onboarding. The employee hovers over a few of the links within the email and discovers that the links do not correspond to links associated with the company. Which of the following attack vectors is most likely being used?

A.
Business email
A.
Business email
Answers
B.
Social engineering
B.
Social engineering
Answers
C.
Unsecured network
C.
Unsecured network
Answers
D.
Default credentials
D.
Default credentials
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The employee notices that the links in the email do not correspond to the company's official URLs, indicating that this is likely a social engineering attack. Social engineering involves manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that may compromise security. Phishing emails, like the one described, often contain fraudulent links to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information or downloading malware.

Business email refers to business email compromise (BEC), which typically involves impersonating a high-level executive to defraud the company.

Unsecured network is unrelated to the email content.

Default credentials do not apply here, as the issue is with suspicious links, not login credentials.

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