ExamGecko
Home Home / CompTIA / SY0-701

CompTIA SY0-701 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 31

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











A recent penetration test identified that an attacker could flood the MAC address table of network switches. Which of the following would best mitigate this type of attack?

A.
Load balancer
A.
Load balancer
Answers
B.
Port security
B.
Port security
Answers
C.
IPS
C.
IPS
Answers
D.
NGFW
D.
NGFW
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Port security is the best mitigation technique for preventing an attacker from flooding the MAC address table of network switches. Port security can limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the switch's MAC table (a form of MAC flooding attack). When the allowed number of MAC addresses is exceeded, port security can block additional devices or trigger alerts.

Load balancer distributes network traffic but does not address MAC flooding attacks.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects and prevents attacks but isn't specifically designed for MAC flooding mitigation.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) offers advanced traffic inspection but is not directly involved in MAC table security.

An administrator at a small business notices an increase in support calls from employees who receive a blocked page message after trying to navigate to a spoofed website. Which of the following should the administrator do?

A.
Deploy multifactor authentication.
A.
Deploy multifactor authentication.
Answers
B.
Decrease the level of the web filter settings
B.
Decrease the level of the web filter settings
Answers
C.
Implement security awareness training.
C.
Implement security awareness training.
Answers
D.
Update the acceptable use policy
D.
Update the acceptable use policy
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

In this scenario, employees are attempting to navigate to spoofed websites, which is being blocked by the web filter. To address this issue, the administrator should implement security awareness training. Training helps employees recognize phishing and other social engineering attacks, reducing the likelihood that they will attempt to access malicious websites in the future.

Deploying multifactor authentication (MFA) would strengthen authentication but does not directly address user behavior related to phishing websites.

Decreasing the level of the web filter would expose the organization to more threats.

Updating the acceptable use policy may clarify guidelines but is not as effective as hands-on training for improving user behavior.

Which of the following control types is AUP an example of?

A.
Physical
A.
Physical
Answers
B.
Managerial
B.
Managerial
Answers
C.
Technical
C.
Technical
Answers
D.
Operational
D.
Operational
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is an example of a managerial control. Managerial controls are policies and procedures that govern an organization's operations, ensuring security through directives and rules. The AUP defines acceptable behavior and usage of company resources, setting guidelines for employees.

Physical controls refer to security measures like locks, fences, or security guards.

Technical controls involve security mechanisms such as firewalls or encryption.

Operational controls are procedures for maintaining security, such as backup and recovery plans.

An administrator has identified and fingerprinted specific files that will generate an alert if an attempt is made to email these files outside of the organization. Which of the following best describes the tool the administrator is using?

A.
DLP
A.
DLP
Answers
B.
SNMP traps
B.
SNMP traps
Answers
C.
SCAP
C.
SCAP
Answers
D.
IPS
D.
IPS
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The administrator is using a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tool, which is designed to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data. By fingerprinting specific files, DLP ensures that these files cannot be emailed or sent outside the organization without triggering an alert or blocking the action. This is a key feature of DLP systems, which prevent data exfiltration and ensure data security compliance.

SNMP traps are used for network management and monitoring, not data protection.

SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is a set of standards for automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, unrelated to file monitoring.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) blocks network-based attacks but does not handle file fingerprinting.

A security analyst is investigating a workstation that is suspected of outbound communication to a command-and-control server. During the investigation, the analyst discovered that logs on the endpoint were deleted. Which of the following logs would the analyst most likely look at next?

A.
IPS
A.
IPS
Answers
B.
Firewall
B.
Firewall
Answers
C.
ACL
C.
ACL
Answers
D.
Windows security
D.
Windows security
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Since the logs on the endpoint were deleted, the next best option for the analyst is to examine firewall logs. Firewall logs can reveal external communication, including outbound traffic to a command-and-control (C2) server. These logs would contain information about the IP addresses, ports, and protocols used, which can help in identifying suspicious connections.

IPS logs may provide information about network intrusions, but firewall logs are better for tracking communication patterns.

ACL logs (Access Control List) are useful for tracking access permissions but not for identifying C2 communication.

Windows security logs would have been ideal if they had not been deleted

A security team is setting up a new environment for hosting the organization's on-premises software application as a cloud-based service. Which of the following should the team ensure is in place in order for the organization to follow security best practices?

A.
Visualization and isolation of resources
A.
Visualization and isolation of resources
Answers
B.
Network segmentation
B.
Network segmentation
Answers
C.
Data encryption
C.
Data encryption
Answers
D.
Strong authentication policies
D.
Strong authentication policies
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

When hosting an on-premises software application in a cloud-based service, ensuring visualization and isolation of resources is crucial for maintaining security best practices. This involves using virtualization techniques to create isolated environments (e.g., virtual machines or containers) for different applications and services, reducing the risk of cross-tenant attacks or resource leakage.

Network segmentation is important but pertains more to securing network traffic rather than isolating computing resources.

Data encryption is also essential but doesn't specifically address resource isolation in a cloud environment.

Strong authentication policies are critical for access control but do not address the need for isolating resources within the cloud environment.

Which of the following phases of an incident response involves generating reports?

A.
Recovery
A.
Recovery
Answers
B.
Preparation
B.
Preparation
Answers
C.
Lessons learned
C.
Lessons learned
Answers
D.
Containment
D.
Containment
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The lessons learned phase of an incident response process involves reviewing the incident and generating reports. This phase helps identify what went well, what needs improvement, and what changes should be made to prevent future incidents. Documentation and reporting are essential parts of this phase to ensure that the findings are recorded and used for future planning.

Recovery focuses on restoring services and normal operations.

Preparation involves creating plans and policies for potential incidents, not reporting.

Containment deals with isolating and mitigating the effects of the incident, not generating reports.

A business needs a recovery site but does not require immediate failover. The business also wants to reduce the workload required to recover from an outage. Which of the following recovery sites is the best option?

A.
Hot
A.
Hot
Answers
B.
Cold
B.
Cold
Answers
C.
Warm
C.
Warm
Answers
D.
Geographically dispersed
D.
Geographically dispersed
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A warm site is the best option for a business that does not require immediate failover but wants to reduce the workload required for recovery. A warm site has some pre-installed equipment and data, allowing for quicker recovery than a cold site, but it still requires some setup before becoming fully operational.

Hot sites provide immediate failover but are more expensive and require constant maintenance.

Cold sites require significant time and effort to get up and running after an outage.

Geographically dispersed sites refer to a specific location strategy rather than the readiness of the recovery site.

Which of the following best describes the practice of researching laws and regulations related to information security operations within a specific industry?

A.
Compliance reporting
A.
Compliance reporting
Answers
B.
GDPR
B.
GDPR
Answers
C.
Due diligence
C.
Due diligence
Answers
D.
Attestation
D.
Attestation
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Due diligence refers to the process of researching and understanding the laws, regulations, and best practices that govern information security within a specific industry. Organizations are required to conduct due diligence to ensure compliance with legal and regulatory requirements, which helps mitigate risks and avoid penalties.

Compliance reporting involves generating reports to demonstrate adherence to legal or regulatory standards.

GDPR is a specific regulation governing data privacy in the EU, not a general practice of researching laws.

Attestation is a formal declaration that an organization is compliant with a set of standards but is not the act of researching the laws.

A security analyst developed a script to automate a trivial and repeatable task. Which of the following best describes the benefits of ensuring other team members understand how the script works?

A.
To reduce implementation cost
A.
To reduce implementation cost
Answers
B.
To identify complexity
B.
To identify complexity
Answers
C.
To remediate technical debt
C.
To remediate technical debt
Answers
D.
To prevent a single point of failure
D.
To prevent a single point of failure
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Ensuring that other team members understand how a script works is essential to prevent a single point of failure. If only one person knows how the script operates, the organization risks being unable to maintain or troubleshoot it if that person is unavailable. Sharing knowledge ensures continuity and reduces dependence on one individual.

Reducing implementation cost and remediating technical debt are secondary considerations in this context.

Identifying complexity is important, but the main benefit is to avoid a single point of failure.

Total 350 questions
Go to page: of 35