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ISTQB CTFL-2018 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 31

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Which one of the following statements about techniques for estimating test effort is correct?

A.
The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the current project.
A.
The metrics-based technique finds the most similar former project and uses its original estimate for the current project.
Answers
B.
The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject matter experts.
B.
The expert-based approach is based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks or by subject matter experts.
Answers
C.
The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective feel for effort required.
C.
The metrics-based technique uses metrics supplied by the current test team based on their subjective feel for effort required.
Answers
D.
In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the estimate.
D.
In an expert-based approach, the test lead with the most years in the role is chosen to produce the estimate.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, there are two main approaches for estimating test effort: metrics-based and expert-based. The metrics-based approach uses metrics from previous similar projects or industry data to calculate the test effort based on the size and complexity of the software under test. The expert-based approach relies on the experience and judgment of the owners of the testing tasks or subject matter experts who provide their estimates based on their knowledge of the software under test. The answer B is correct because it accurately describes the expert-based approach. The other answers are incorrect because they either confuse the metrics-based and expert-based approaches or describe them incorrectly.

Which of the following would NOT typically be covered in a test summary report?

A.
The risks associated with unresolved defects found during testing.
A.
The risks associated with unresolved defects found during testing.
Answers
B.
Any features of the system that were not tested along with reasons.
B.
Any features of the system that were not tested along with reasons.
Answers
C.
Whether there is any economic benefit in continuing testing beyond the planned date.
C.
Whether there is any economic benefit in continuing testing beyond the planned date.
Answers
D.
An analysis of lessons learned to determine changes for future projects.
D.
An analysis of lessons learned to determine changes for future projects.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, a test summary report is a document that summarizes the results and activities of a completed test level. It typically includes information such as test objectives, test items, test environment, test cases executed, defects found, incidents raised, and lessons learned. The answer C is incorrect because it would not typically be covered in a test summary report. The economic benefit of continuing testing beyond the planned date is not a relevant information for a completed test level, as it is more related to project management decisions. The other answers are correct because they are examples of information that would typically be covered in a test summary report.

Which of the following BEST describes how configuration management supports the test process?

A.
It enables the tester to reproduce the tested item through unique identification and version control.
A.
It enables the tester to reproduce the tested item through unique identification and version control.
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B.
It enables the tester to systematically design test conditions, cases and data.
B.
It enables the tester to systematically design test conditions, cases and data.
Answers
C.
It enables incidents to be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution.
C.
It enables incidents to be tracked from discovery and classification to correction and confirmation of the solution.
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D.
It helps the test manager to decide how best to integrate and coordinate the testing activities into the software life cycle.
D.
It helps the test manager to decide how best to integrate and coordinate the testing activities into the software life cycle.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency of a product's attributes throughout its life cycle. It involves identifying, controlling, tracking, and auditing changes to the product's components and documentation. Configuration management supports the test process by enabling the tester to reproduce the tested item through unique identification and version control. This ensures that the tester knows exactly what has been tested and can trace any defects or incidents to the correct version of the software under test. The answer A is correct because it best describes how configuration management supports the test process. The other answers are incorrect because they describe other aspects of testing that are not directly related to configuration management.

Which of the following are product risks?

a) Failure prone software delivered.

b) Software does not perform its intended functions.

c) Insufficient staff available for testing.

d) Test environment not ready on time.

e) Poor data integrity and quality.

A.
b, c and e.
A.
b, c and e.
Answers
B.
b, d and e.
B.
b, d and e.
Answers
C.
a, b and e.
C.
a, b and e.
Answers
D.
b, c and d.
D.
b, c and d.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, product risks are risks that affect the quality of the software product, such as defects, failures, or non-compliance with requirements or standards. Product risks can be identified and analyzed during the test planning phase, and mitigated by appropriate test design and execution. The answer C is correct because it lists three product risks: failure prone software delivered, software does not perform its intended functions, and poor data integrity and quality. The other answers are incorrect because they include project risks, which are risks that affect the management and control of the testing process, such as insufficient staff, test environment issues, or schedule delays.

Your agile project has scheduled a final sprint before release to fix and re-test all open defects with a priority level of 3 or above.

The following defect report shows the defect fields that are currently being captured on the system.

Title: Unable to add excursions to pre-paid cruises

Date raised: 21/05/18

Author: Emma Rigby

Status: Fixed

What occurred: I went to book an excursion for a pre-paid cruise but received an error message saying, 'Facility not available'. I can book excursions on cruises that have not yet been fully paid.

What should have occurred: Requirement 3.12 says clearly that customers can add excursions after cruises have been fully paid so the facility should have been available (when an additional amount may now need to be paid).

Priority: 2

Software build: 2.1

Test level: System test

Environment details: System test 3

Which of ONE of the following additional defect report fields would be MOST beneficial for the sprint team to add?

A.
Severity.
A.
Severity.
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B.
Test Script Id.
B.
Test Script Id.
Answers
C.
Actual results.
C.
Actual results.
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D.
Expected results.
D.
Expected results.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, a defect report is a document that records the occurrence, nature, and status of a defect. A defect report typically includes several fields that provide relevant information about the defect, such as its title, description, priority, status, environment, steps to reproduce, expected result, actual result, etc. The answer A is correct because it suggests adding severity as an additional defect report field. Severity is a measure of the impact of a defect on the system or its users. Severity can help prioritize defects and decide whether they need to be fixed or not. The other answers are incorrect because they suggest adding fields that are already present in the defect report. Test script id is not necessary for a defect report, as it can be inferred from the steps to reproduce. Actual results and expected results are already included in the defect report under what occurred and what should have occurred.

An issue has been found in a production system, where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it. Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect during Performance testing?

A.
Dynamic analysis tool.
A.
Dynamic analysis tool.
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B.
Test Execution tool.
B.
Test Execution tool.
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C.
Configuration management tool.
C.
Configuration management tool.
Answers
D.
Coverage measurement tool.
D.
Coverage measurement tool.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, dynamic analysis tools are tools that perform testing or analysis by executing the software or a part of it. Dynamic analysis tools can help detect defects or problems that only appear during runtime, such as memory leaks, performance issues, concurrency errors, etc. The answer A is correct because it suggests using a dynamic analysis tool for detecting a memory leak during performance testing. A memory leak is a situation where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it, causing memory exhaustion and degradation of performance. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the memory usage of the code component and identify any memory leaks. The other answers are incorrect because they suggest using tools that are not suitable for detecting memory leaks during performance testing. A test execution tool is a tool that executes test cases automatically or semi-automatically. A configuration management tool is a tool that controls and tracks changes to the software components and documentation. A coverage measurement tool is a tool that measures how much of the code or functionality has been exercised by a test suite.

Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms 'validation' and 'verification'?

A.
Validation Is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
A.
Validation Is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
Answers
B.
Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
B.
Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
Answers
C.
Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification Is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
C.
Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification Is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
Answers
D.
Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
D.
Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, verification is the process of evaluating a product or component to determine whether it satisfies its specified requirements. Validation is the process of evaluating a product or component to determine whether it fulfills its intended use and user expectations. Verification answers the question ''Are we building the product right?'' while validation answers the question ''Are we building the right product?'' Both verification and validation involve providing objective evidence, which means factual, unbiased, and observable information that supports the evaluation. The answer D is correct because it best distinguishes the terms ''validation'' and ''verification''. The other answers are incorrect because they either confuse the terms ''validation'' and ''verification'' or use subjective evidence, which means personal, biased, or unobservable information that does not support the evaluation.

Which of the following Is a possible reason for Introducing a defect In software code?

A.
Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing
A.
Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing
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B.
Improper system testing
B.
Improper system testing
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C.
Improper unit testing
C.
Improper unit testing
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D.
Focus on static testing over dynamic testing
D.
Focus on static testing over dynamic testing
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Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, a defect is a flaw in a component or system that can cause it to fail to perform its required function. A defect can be introduced in any phase of the software development life cycle, such as requirements, design, coding, testing, or deployment. A possible reason for introducing a defect in software code is rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing. This can lead to careless mistakes, incomplete functionality, or poor quality code. The answer A is correct because it is an example of a possible reason for introducing a defect in software code. The other answers are incorrect because they are not reasons for introducing defects in software code, but rather consequences or detection methods of defects.

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases rf the purchases exceeded S100. II, was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

A.
The audit finding is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements
A.
The audit finding is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements
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B.
An issue with the design is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation
B.
An issue with the design is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation
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C.
The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause
C.
The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause
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D.
The audit finding is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% is the defect, and the incorrect requirement is the effect
D.
The audit finding is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% is the defect, and the incorrect requirement is the effect
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, root cause analysis is a technique that aims to identify and address the underlying causes of defects or problems in a process or system. Root cause analysis involves finding the effect (the observable symptom or outcome of the problem), finding the cause (the factor or factors that directly influence the effect), and finding the root cause (the fundamental reason why the cause exists). The answer C is correct because it most accurately reflects this scenario. The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause. The other answers are incorrect because they either confuse the effect, cause, and root cause or use incorrect terms.

Which of the following Is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy?

A.
Over lime, running the same test cases do not find any defects
A.
Over lime, running the same test cases do not find any defects
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B.
Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions
B.
Other than trivial cases, it is not feasible to test all combinations of inputs and preconditions
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C.
A small number of modules contains the most defects
C.
A small number of modules contains the most defects
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D.
Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful
D.
Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

According to the syllabus, the absence-of-errors fallacy is a common misconception that finding and fixing defects will ensure the success of a system. This fallacy ignores the fact that there may be other factors that affect user satisfaction and system value, such as usability, functionality, performance, reliability, security, etc. The answer D is correct because it is an example of the absence-of-errors fallacy. Since testing found very few defects, the system certainly will be successful. This statement assumes that defect detection is the only criterion for system success, which is not true. The other answers are incorrect because they are not examples of the absence-of-errors fallacy, but rather facts or challenges related to testing.

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