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The following checklist has been produced to help reviewers detect defects with user stones:

User Story Checklist:

1. The user story must have a unique identifier

2 The user story must contain the user/customer

3 The user story must contain the need

4. The user story must contain the reason.

5. The user story must contain testable acceptance Criteria-Using the checklist above what is wrong with the following user story?

User Story US2018

As a bank account customer, I would like to transfer money from one account to another using the mobile banking application by using the drag and drop feature.

This is acceptable when

* I can drag and drop from one account to another and select any of the pre-defined amounts

* I can drag and drop from one account to another and type in any positive amount

* Once I confirm the details the amount is debited from the first account and credited to the second account

A.
The acceptance criteria is not testable
A.
The acceptance criteria is not testable
Answers
B.
The user story does not contain the customer.
B.
The user story does not contain the customer.
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C.
The user story does not contain the reason
C.
The user story does not contain the reason
Answers
D.
The user story does not contain the unique identifier.
D.
The user story does not contain the unique identifier.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

According to the user story checklist, the user story must contain the reason for the need, which is usually expressed by using the word ''so that'' or ''because''. For example, the user story could be rewritten as:

User Story US2018 As a bank account customer, I would like to transfer money from one account to another using the mobile banking application by using the drag and drop feature,so that I can easily manage my finances.

This way, the user story provides a clear value proposition and a justification for the need. The reason also helps to define the scope and priority of the user story, as well as to verify the acceptance criteria.

An airline's frequent flyer's club awards benefits depending on which tier a customer is in. The software must determine which tier to allocate a customer to based on an input value of total Credits Earned to date

Customers initially join the Silver Tier and remain in that tier for the first 400 Credits Earned The next 400 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Gold Tier. The next 600 Credits Earned moves the customer into the Platinum Tier Further Credits Earned moves the customer into the Concierge Tier.

Test Cases have been written with the following total Credits Earned input values:

TC1 -400 Credits

TC2 - 500 Credits

TC3 - 800 Credits

TC4-1500 Credits

Applying the Equivalence Partitioning test design technique, what percentage of valid Equivalence Partitions have these 4 test cases collectively achieved?

A.
25%
A.
25%
Answers
B.
50%.
B.
50%.
Answers
C.
75%.
C.
75%.
Answers
D.
100%
D.
100%
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Equivalence Partitioning is a black-box test design technique that divides input data of a software module into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this context, the valid equivalence partitions are:

Silver Tier: 0 to 400 Credits

Gold Tier: 401 to 800 Credits

Platinum Tier: 801 to 1400 Credits

Concierge Tier: 1401+ Credits

The test cases provided cover all these partitions:

TC1 covers the Silver Tier boundary at 400 Credits.

TC2 covers within the Gold Tier at 500 Credits.

TC3 covers the Gold Tier boundary at 800 Credits.

TC4 covers within the Concierge Tier at 1500 Credits.

Since all valid partitions are covered by the test cases, 100% of the valid Equivalence Partitions have been achieved.

A supermarket rewards its customers with discounts on certain products depending on how much the customer spends over a twelve-month period. The discounts are:

* 5% discount - once 500 has been spent.

* 10% discount - once a further 500 has been spent.

* 15% discount - once a further 1000 has been spent.

* 20% discount - once a further 2000 has been spent.

The following test cases have been written: TC1 -500 spent TC2 - 2000 spent

How many more test cases must be written to achieve 100% 2-pomt boundary value analysis for the discount scheme?

A.
4
A.
4
Answers
B.
6
B.
6
Answers
C.
7
C.
7
Answers
D.
8
D.
8
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

2-point boundary value analysis is a technique that tests the boundary values of valid and invalid partitions with two values each: one at the boundary and one just outside the boundary. For example, if the valid range is 1 to 10, the 2-point boundary values are 1, 2, 9, 10 for the valid partition, and 0, 11 for the invalid partitions. The advantage of this technique is that it reduces the number of test cases compared to 3-point boundary value analysis, which tests one value inside the boundary as well. However, it may miss some defects that occur only with the values inside the boundary.

In this question, the valid partitions are the ranges of spending that correspond to different discounts, and the invalid partitions are the ranges of spending that are below or above the valid partitions. The boundaries are the values of spending that trigger a change in the discount rate. The 2-point boundary values for each partition are:

Invalid partition below 500: 0, 499

Valid partition for 5% discount: 500, 501

Valid partition for 10% discount: 1000, 1001

Valid partition for 15% discount: 2000, 2001

Valid partition for 20% discount: 4000, 4001

Invalid partition above 4000: 4001, 4002

The test cases TC1 and TC2 already cover two of the boundary values: 500 and 2000. Therefore, to achieve 100% 2-point boundary value analysis, we need to write seven more test cases to cover the remaining boundary values: 0, 499, 501, 1000, 1001, 4000, and 4002. Note that 4001 is a boundary value for both the valid and invalid partitions, so we only need to test it once.

Which one of the following is an example of how product risk analysis can influence the testing approach?

A.
The complex business rules could result in costly failures, so decision table testing will be used for test case design.
A.
The complex business rules could result in costly failures, so decision table testing will be used for test case design.
Answers
B.
Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this area.
B.
Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this area.
Answers
C.
There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled out.
C.
There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled out.
Answers
D.
There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a contingency measure.
D.
There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a contingency measure.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Product risk analysis is an approach to testing that aims to reduce the level of product risks and inform stakeholders of their status, starting in the initial stages of a project1.It involves the identification of product risks and the use of risk levels to guide the test process1.Product risks are uncertain situations that can affect the quality or value of the software product2.One of the factors that can influence the testing approach is the test design technique to be applied3.Test design techniques are methods to derive and select test cases based on the test objectives, test conditions, and test basis2.Decision table testing is a test design technique that is suitable for testing complex business rules that have logical conditions and outcomes2.Therefore, if the product risk analysis identifies that the complex business rules could result in costly failures, then decision table testing will be used for test case design to cover all the possible combinations of conditions and outcomes2.

The other options are not examples of how product risk analysis can influence the testing approach, because they are either not related to product risks or not based on risk levels. They are:

Performance failures were much lower than expected, so more test analysis will be conducted in this area (B).This is not related to product risk analysis, but to test monitoring and control, which is the process of comparing actual progress against the plan and reporting the status2.Test analysis is the activity of analyzing the test basis and defining test objectives2. If the performance failures were much lower than expected, then more test execution or evaluation might be needed, not more test analysis.

There is a lack of automation skills in the test team, so training for the automation tool will be rolled out .This is not related to product risk analysis, but to test management, which is the process of planning, monitoring, and controlling the test activities and resources2.Test automation is the use of software to perform or support test activities2.The lack of automation skills in the test team is a project risk, not a product risk, and it should be addressed by providing adequate training, tools, and resources for the test team2.

There are no product risks recorded around security, so security testing will be given priority as a contingency measure (D). This is not based on risk levels, but on the absence of risk identification, which is a poor practice in product risk analysis.Security testing is a type of testing that determines whether the software protects data and maintains functionality as intended2.Product risk analysis should identify the potential security risks and assign them appropriate risk levels based on their probability and impact1.Security testing should be prioritized based on the risk levels, not on the lack of risk identification, which could lead to overlooking or underestimating the security risks1.

ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 syllabus

Risk in Software Testing

Risk-Based Testing

Test Approach

Tests have been specified for the latest software release and users have prioritised these

However, there are some dependencies between tests as shown in the table below (e.g. Test ID. X cannot be run until Test ID. Y has been successfully completed).

Which test execution schedule best meets the prioritisation and dependency conditions?

A.
5,2,3,4 1
A.
5,2,3,4 1
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B.
1,5,3,1,2.
B.
1,5,3,1,2.
Answers
C.
1,2,3,4,5
C.
1,2,3,4,5
Answers
D.
5,1,2,3,4
D.
5,1,2,3,4
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The test execution schedule should follow the priority order of the tests, as well as the dependency constraints. The priority order is given by the user value column, where higher values indicate higher priority. The dependency constraints are given by the dependency column, where a test ID indicates that the test cannot be run until the test with that ID has been successfully completed. Therefore, the test execution schedule should start with the highest priority test that has no dependency, which is test 5. Then, it should continue with the next highest priority test that has no dependency or has a satisfied dependency, which is test 1. Then, it should proceed with test 2, which depends on test 1, and then test 3, which depends on test 2. Finally, it should end with test 4, which depends on test 3. Thus, the test execution schedule that best meets the prioritisation and dependency conditions is 5,1,2,3,4.

Which one of the following would you typically expect to find in a test completion report for a test level?

A.
Factors that are currently impeding test progress and the tests planned for the following day.
A.
Factors that are currently impeding test progress and the tests planned for the following day.
Answers
B.
A summary of the testing performed and any deviations from the schedule, duration or effort of test activities.
B.
A summary of the testing performed and any deviations from the schedule, duration or effort of test activities.
Answers
C.
The planned overall approach for testing and the resources required to perform the various test activities.
C.
The planned overall approach for testing and the resources required to perform the various test activities.
Answers
D.
The proposed exit criteria and metrics reports for review and agreement by the stakeholders.
D.
The proposed exit criteria and metrics reports for review and agreement by the stakeholders.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A test completion report for a test level typically includes a summary of all the testing activities that have been performed. It should detail any deviations from the original test schedule, including any changes in the planned duration or effort that were required to complete the test activities. This report serves as a record of what was tested, how it was tested, and any issues that were encountered.

You are testing a mobile app that displays a person's status in respect of Covid-19. There are five possibilities: Fully Vaccinated, Partly Vaccinated, Infected & Recovered. Last Tested Positive or Last Tested Negative. You have found that, after receiving data about successful administration of a second injection, the person's status has not changed from Partly Vaccinated to Fully Vaccinated, although it should have done. The project uses a popular proprietary defect management tool where you have drafted an incident report with the following information:

* Test id., test environment used and date/time of run

* Expected and actual results with steps to reproduce.

* Severity level 4 (Critical - an entire functional area is unusable)

* Version data for the application under test and the testware that was used

Which one of the following important items of information is missing?

A.
Recommendations
A.
Recommendations
Answers
B.
Name of Tester
B.
Name of Tester
Answers
C.
Priority
C.
Priority
Answers
D.
Change History
D.
Change History
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Priority is an important item of information that is missing from the incident report. Priority indicates the importance or urgency of resolving the incident, based on the business needs and the impact on the stakeholders. Priority is usually assigned by the project manager or the customer, and it helps to determine the order in which incidents should be addressed. Priority may differ from severity, which indicates the degree of impact of the incident on the system or the component under test. Severity is usually assigned by the tester or the developer, and it helps to assess the risk of the incident. For example, an incident may have a high severity but a low priority, if it affects a critical function but only occurs in a rare situation. Conversely, an incident may have a low severity but a high priority, if it affects a minor function but occurs frequently or affects many users. Therefore, both priority and severity are useful information for incident management and resolution.

The other options are not essential information for the incident report, although they may be helpful or desirable in some cases. Recommendations are suggestions or proposals for resolving the incident, which may be provided by the tester, the developer, or other stakeholders. However, recommendations are not mandatory, and they may not be feasible or acceptable in some situations. Name of tester is the identifier of the person who reported the incident, which may be useful for communication or accountability purposes. However, name of tester is not critical, and it may be replaced by other identifiers, such as email address, employee number, or role. Change history is the record of the changes made to the incident report, such as status, resolution, or comments. Change history is valuable for tracking and auditing purposes, but it is not part of the initial incident report, rather it is updated as the incident progresses.

What one of the following would be a typical objective of running a pilot project when introducing a new tool into an organisation?

A.
To establish whether the tool is available for a free trial period (and for how long).
A.
To establish whether the tool is available for a free trial period (and for how long).
Answers
B.
To provide training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool.
B.
To provide training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool.
Answers
C.
To develop a clear set of requirements and objective criteria against which the tool can be evaluated.
C.
To develop a clear set of requirements and objective criteria against which the tool can be evaluated.
Answers
D.
To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what would need to change.
D.
To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what would need to change.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

After completing the tool selection and a successful proof-of-concept, introducing the selected tool into an organization generally starts with a pilot project, which has the following objectives12:

Gaining in-depth knowledge about the tool, understanding both its strengths and weaknesses

Evaluating how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what would need to change

Assessing whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost

Identifying and resolving any technical and organizational issues before deploying the tool on a larger scale

Providing training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool

Defining metrics to measure the success of the tool deployment

Therefore, the option D is the most typical objective of running a pilot project, as it is essential to ensure the compatibility and suitability of the tool with the current way of working, and to identify any potential risks or challenges that may arise from the tool introduction12.

The other options are not typical objectives of running a pilot project, because they are either part of the tool selection process, or the outcomes of the pilot project. They are:

To establish whether the tool is available for a free trial period (and for how long) (A).This is part of the tool selection process, which involves gathering information about the tool features, costs, support, and availability12.This should be done before running a pilot project, as it helps to narrow down the list of potential tools and to conduct a proof-of-concept12.

To provide training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool (B).This is an outcome of the pilot project, which aims to increase the competence and confidence of the tool users and to facilitate the tool adoption12.This should be done during and after the pilot project, as it helps to ensure the effective and efficient use of the tool and to address any issues or feedback from the users12.

To develop a clear set of requirements and objective criteria against which the tool can be evaluated .This is also part of the tool selection process, which involves defining the tool requirements based on the needs and expectations of the stakeholders, and establishing the evaluation criteria based on the benefits and risks of the tool12.This should also be done before running a pilot project, as it helps to compare and rank the potential tools and to select the most suitable one12.

ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 syllabus

Chapter 6 - Tool Support for Testing | PPT


Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

A.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach
A.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach
Answers
B.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the metrics-based approach
B.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the metrics-based approach
Answers
C.
Burndown chads used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach
C.
Burndown chads used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach
Answers
D.
Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach
D.
Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The correct answer is A, as it states that the Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach.The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is a method of estimating testing effort or duration by using a structured group process that involves multiple experts2.The experts provide their estimates independently and anonymously, then compare and discuss them until they reach a consensus2.This technique is an example of the expert-based approach, which is an approach that relies on the knowledge and experience of experts to estimate testing activities2. Option B is incorrect, as it states that the Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the metrics-based approach.The metrics-based approach is an approach that uses historical data and mathematical formulas to estimate testing activities2. This approach does not involve experts or group processes. Option C is incorrect, as it states that burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach.Burndown charts are graphical tools that show the amount of work remaining versus time in an Agile project2. They are used to monitor and control testing progress and quality. They are not examples of the expert-based approach, as they do not rely on experts' opinions or estimates. Option D is incorrect, as it states that burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach.The risk-based approach is an approach that uses risk analysis to prioritize and estimate testing activities2. This approach involves identifying and assessing risks based on their likelihood and impact.It does not involve burndown charts or Agile development.

Reference:2, Section 2.6

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees?

A.
The report Is detailed and Includes specific information on defects and trends
A.
The report Is detailed and Includes specific information on defects and trends
Answers
B.
The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget
B.
The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget
Answers
C.
The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends
C.
The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends
Answers
D.
The report is high-level and includes a status summary of detects by priority or budget
D.
The report is high-level and includes a status summary of detects by priority or budget
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The correct answer is D, as it describes a test summary report for executive-level employees.A test summary report is a document that summarizes the results and evaluation of testing activities for a specific activity or phase3.It may have different levels of detail and content depending on the intended audience and purpose3.A test summary report for executive-level employees is typically high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget3.This type of report provides a concise overview of the quality and progress of testing without going into too much detail or technical information3. Option A is incorrect, as it describes a test summary report for technical-level employees.A test summary report for technical-level employees is typically detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends3.This type of report provides a comprehensive analysis of the quality and progress of testing with relevant data and metrics3. Option B is incorrect, as it describes a test summary report that is neither suitable for executive-level nor technical-level employees.A test summary report that is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget is too detailed for executive-level employees and too vague for technical-level employees3. Option C is incorrect, as it describes a test summary report that is neither suitable for executive-level nor technical-level employees.A test summary report that is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends is too high-level for technical-level employees and too specific for executive-level employees3.

Reference:3, Section 2.7

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