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A network administrator is required to ensure that auditors have read-only access to the system logs, while systems administrators have read and write access to the system logs, and operators have no access to the system logs. The network administrator has configured security groups for each of these functional categories. Which of the following security capabilities will allow the network administrator to maintain these permissions with the LEAST administrative effort?

A.
Mandatory access control
A.
Mandatory access control
Answers
B.
User-based permissions
B.
User-based permissions
Answers
C.
Role-based access
C.
Role-based access
Answers
D.
Least privilege
D.
Least privilege
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Role-based access is a security capability that assigns permissions to users based on their roles or functions within an organization. It allows the network administrator to maintain these permissions with the least administrative effort, as they only need to configure the security groups for each role once and then assign users to those groups. Mandatory access control is a security capability that assigns permissions based on security labels or classifications, which requires more administrative effort to maintain. User-based permissions are a security capability that assigns permissions to individual users, which is not scalable or efficient for large organizations. Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks, which is not a security capability by itself.

Which of the following would be used to expedite MX record updates to authoritative NSs?

A.
UDP forwarding
A.
UDP forwarding
Answers
B.
DNS caching
B.
DNS caching
Answers
C.
Recursive lookup
C.
Recursive lookup
Answers
D.
Time to live
D.
Time to live
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Time to live (TTL) is a value that indicates how long a DNS record can be cached by authoritative NSs (name servers) or other DNS servers before it expires and needs to be updated. A lower TTL value would expedite MX record updates to authoritative NSs, as they would refresh the record more frequently. UDP forwarding is not a DNS term, but a technique of sending UDP packets from one host to another. DNS caching is the process of storing DNS records locally for faster resolution, which does not expedite MX record updates. Recursive lookup is a type of DNS query where a DNS server queries other DNS servers on behalf of a client until it finds the answer, which does not expedite MX record updates.

A client moving into a new office wants the IP network set up to accommodate 412 network- connected devices that are all on the same subnet. The subnet needs to be as small as possible. Which of the following subnet masks should be used to achieve the required result?

A.
255.255.0.0
A.
255.255.0.0
Answers
B.
255.255.252.0
B.
255.255.252.0
Answers
C.
255.255.254.0
C.
255.255.254.0
Answers
D.
255.255.255.0
D.
255.255.255.0
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

255.255.252.0 is a subnet mask that allows for 1022 network-connected devices on the same subnet, which is the smallest subnet that can accommodate 412 devices. The subnet mask determines how many bits are used for the network portion and how many bits are used for the host portion of an IP address. A smaller subnet mask means more bits are used for the network portion and less bits are used for the host portion, which reduces the number of available hosts on the subnet. 255.255.0.0 allows for 65534 hosts on the same subnet, which is too large. 255.255.254.0 allows for 510 hosts on the same subnet, which is also too large. 255.255.255.0 allows for 254 hosts on the same subnet, which is too small.

A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company's address should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page. Which of the following DNS records needs to be created?

A.
SOA
A.
SOA
Answers
B.
NS
B.
NS
Answers
C.
CNAME
C.
CNAME
Answers
D.
TXT
D.
TXT
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Reference: https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/9604/2237/types-of- domain-redirects-301-302-url-redirects-url-frame-and-

cname/#:~:text=CNAME%20record%20is%20actually%20not,often%20mistakenly%20used%20as%2 0such.&text=In%20other%20words%2C%20CNAME%20record,address%20of%20the%20destination %20hostname

CNAME (Canonical Name) is a type of DNS record that maps an alias name to another name, which can be either another alias or the canonical name of a host or domain. A CNAME record can be used to redirect clients from one domain name to another domain name, such as from the company’s address to the corporate organization page. SOA (Start of Authority) is a type of DNS record that specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone, such as the primary name server, contact email address, serial number, refresh interval, etc., which does not redirect clients to another domain name. NS (Name Server) is a type of DNS record that specifies which name server is authoritative for a domain or subdomain, which does not redirect clients to another domain name. TXT (Text) is a type of DNS record that provides arbitrary text information about a domain or subdomain, such as SPF (Sender Policy Framework) records or DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) records, which does not redirect clients to another domain name.

A user is having difficulty with video conferencing and is looking for assistance. Which of the following would BEST improve performance?

A.
Packet shaping
A.
Packet shaping
Answers
B.
Quality of service
B.
Quality of service
Answers
C.
Port mirroring
C.
Port mirroring
Answers
D.
Load balancing
D.
Load balancing
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Quality of service (QoS) is a mechanism that prioritizes network traffic based on different criteria, such as application type, source and destination address, port number, etc., and allocates bandwidth and resources accordingly. QoS would best improve performance for video conferencing, as it would ensure that video traffic gets higher priority and lower latency than other types of traffic on the network. Packet shaping is a technique that controls the rate or volume of network traffic by delaying or dropping packets that exceed certain thresholds or violate certain policies, which may not improve performance for video conferencing if it causes packet loss or jitter. Port mirroring is a technique that copies traffic from one port to another port on a switch for monitoring or analysis purposes, which does not improve performance for video conferencing at all. Load balancing is a technique that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices for improved availability and scalability, which does not

A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following would normally be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?

A.
Secure SNMP
A.
Secure SNMP
Answers
B.
Port security
B.
Port security
Answers
C.
Implicit deny
C.
Implicit deny
Answers
D.
DHCP snooping
D.
DHCP snooping
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Implicit deny is a firewall rule that blocks all traffic that is not explicitly allowed by other rules. Implicit deny is usually applied as the last rule in the firewall to ensure that only the necessary access requirements are allowed through the firewall and that any unwanted or malicious traffic is rejected. Implicit deny can also provide a default security policy and a baseline for auditing and logging purposes.

Secure SNMP is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages to a centralized server or console for logging and analysis. Secure SNMP can be used to monitor and manage the status, performance, and configuration of network devices. Secure SNMP can also help to detect and respond to potential problems or faults on the network. However, secure SNMP is not a firewall rule; it is a network management protocol.

Port security is a feature that allows a switch to restrict the devices that can connect to a specific port based on their MAC addresses. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks on the switch. However, port security is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature. DHCP snooping is a feature that allows a switch to filter DHCP messages and prevent rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. DHCP snooping can help to prevent IP address conflicts, spoofing, or denial-of-service attacks on the network. However, DHCP snooping is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.

A systems administrator is running a VoIP network and is experiencing jitter and high latency. Which of the following would BEST help the administrator determine the cause of these issues?

A.
Enabling RADIUS on the network
A.
Enabling RADIUS on the network
Answers
B.
Configuring SNMP traps on the network
B.
Configuring SNMP traps on the network
Answers
C.
Implementing LDAP on the network
C.
Implementing LDAP on the network
Answers
D.
Establishing NTP on the network
D.
Establishing NTP on the network
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate with a network management system (NMS) for monitoring and configuration purposes. SNMP traps are unsolicited messages sent by network devices to the NMS when certain events or conditions occur, such as errors, failures, or thresholds. Configuring SNMP traps on the network would best help the administrator determine the cause of jitter and high latency on a VoIP network, as they would provide real-time alerts and information about the network performance and status. Enabling RADIUS on the network is not relevant to troubleshooting VoIP issues, as RADIUS is a protocol that provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services for network access. Implementing LDAP on the network is also not relevant to troubleshooting VoIP issues, as LDAP is a protocol that provides directory services for storing and querying information about users, groups, devices, etc. Establishing NTP on the network is not directly related to troubleshooting VoIP issues, as NTP is a protocol that synchronizes the clocks of network devices.

The following instructions were published about the proper network configuration for a videoconferencing device:

"Configure a valid static RFC1918 address for your network. Check the option to use a connection over NAT."

Which of the following is a valid IP address configuration for the device?

A.
FE80::1
A.
FE80::1
Answers
B.
100.64.0.1
B.
100.64.0.1
Answers
C.
169.254.1.2
C.
169.254.1.2
Answers
D.
172.19.0.2
D.
172.19.0.2
Answers
E.
224.0.0.12
E.
224.0.0.12
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

172.19.0.2 is a valid IP address configuration for the device that uses a static RFC1918 address for the network and allows for a connection over NAT (Network Address Translation). RFC1918 addresses are private IP addresses that are not routable on the public Internet and are used for internal networks. The RFC1918 address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. NAT is a technique that translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses when communicating with external networks, such as the Internet. FE80::1 is an IPv6 link-local address that is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 100.64.0.1 is an IPv4 address that belongs to the shared address space range (100.64.0.0/10) that is used for carrier-grade NAT (CGN) between service providers and subscribers, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 169.254.1.2 is an IPv4 link-local address that is automatically assigned by a device when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server or manual configuration, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 224.0.0.12 is an IPv4 multicast address that is used for VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT.

A network administrator is reviewing interface errors on a switch. Which of the following indicates that a switchport is receiving packets in excess of the configured MTU?

A.
CRC errors
A.
CRC errors
Answers
B.
Giants
B.
Giants
Answers
C.
Runts
C.
Runts
Answers
D.
Flooding
D.
Flooding
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Giants are packets that exceed the configured MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) of a switchport or interface, which causes them to be dropped or fragmented by the switch or router. The MTU is the maximum size of a packet that can be transmitted without fragmentation on a given medium or protocol. Giants can indicate misconfiguration or mismatch of MTU values between devices or interfaces on a network, which can cause performance issues or errors. CRC errors are errors that occur when the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) value of a packet does not match the calculated CRC value at the destination, which indicates corruption or alteration of data during transmission due to noise, interference, faulty cabling, etc., but not necessarily exceeding MTU values. Runts are packets that are smaller than the minimum size allowed by the medium or protocol, which causes them to be dropped or ignored by the switch or router. Flooding is a technique where a switch sends packets to all ports except the source port when it does not have an entry for the destination MAC address in its MAC address table, which can cause congestion or broadcast storms on a network.

A network administrator needs to implement an HDMI over IP solution. Which of the following will the network administrator MOST likely use to ensure smooth video delivery?

A.
Link aggregation control
A.
Link aggregation control
Answers
B.
Port tagging
B.
Port tagging
Answers
C.
Jumbo frames
C.
Jumbo frames
Answers
D.
Media access control
D.
Media access control
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Giants are packets that exceed the configured MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) of a switchport or interface, which causes them to be dropped or fragmented by the switch or router. The MTU is the maximum size of a packet that can be transmitted without fragmentation on a given medium or protocol. Giants can indicate misconfiguration or mismatch of MTU values between devices or interfaces on a network, which can cause performance issues or errors. CRC errors are errors that occur when the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) value of a packet does not match the calculated CRC value at the destination, which indicates corruption or alteration of data during transmission due to noise, interference, faulty cabling, etc., but not necessarily exceeding MTU values. Runts are packets that are smaller than the minimum size allowed by the medium or protocol, which causes them to be dropped or ignored by the switch or router. Flooding is a technique where a switch sends packets to all ports except the source port when it does not have an entry for the destination MAC address in its MAC address table, which can cause congestion or broadcast storms on a network.

Topic 3, Exam Pool C

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