ExamGecko
Home Home / CompTIA / N10-008

CompTIA N10-008 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 77

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











A technician is working on a ticket for a user in the human resources department who received a new PC that does not connect to the internet. All users in human resources can access the internet. The technician can ping the PC from the human resources router but not from the IT network. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.
Duplicate IP address
A.
Duplicate IP address
Answers
B.
Misconfigured RIP
B.
Misconfigured RIP
Answers
C.
Improper VLAN assignment
C.
Improper VLAN assignment
Answers
D.
Incorrect default gateway
D.
Incorrect default gateway
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An incorrect default gateway can cause a PC to not connect to the internet, because the default gateway is the device that routes traffic from the local network to other networks. If the PC has a wrong default gateway configured, it may not be able to reach the internet router or the IT network router. The technician can ping the PC from the human resources router because they are on the same local network, but not from the IT network router because they are on different networks.

A duplicate IP address can cause a PC to not communicate with other devices on the same network, because the IP address is the unique identifier of a device on a network. If two devices have the same IP address, they may cause IP conflicts and packet loss. However, a duplicate IP address would not prevent the technician from pinging the PC from the human resources router, because they are on the same network.

A misconfigured RIP can cause a router to not learn or advertise routes to other networks, because RIP is a routing protocol that dynamically exchanges routing information between routers. If a router has a wrong RIP configuration, it may not be able to reach or share routes with other routers. However, a misconfigured RIP would not affect the PC's connectivity to the internet, because the PC does not use RIP.

An improper VLAN assignment can cause a PC to not communicate with other devices on the same or different networks, because a VLAN is a logical segmentation of a network that isolates traffic based on criteria such as function, security, or performance. If a PC is assigned to a wrong VLAN, it may not be able to access the resources or services that it needs. However, an improper VLAN assignment would not prevent the technician from pinging the PC from the human resources router, because they are on the same physical network.

Reference

What is a Default Gateway?

What's an IP Conflict and How Do You Resolve It?

What is RIP (Routing Information Protocol)?

What is a VLAN? How to Set Up a VLAN Network

CompTIA Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition (Exam N10-008)

A technician is troubleshooting a client's report about poor wireless performance. Using a client monitor, the technician notes the following information:

Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?

A.
Channel overlap
A.
Channel overlap
Answers
B.
Poor signal
B.
Poor signal
Answers
C.
Incorrect power settings
C.
Incorrect power settings
Answers
D.
Wrong antenna type
D.
Wrong antenna type
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Channel overlap is a situation where multiple wireless networks use the same or adjacent frequency channels, causing interference and degradation of performance. According to the image, the corporate SSID is using channels 9, 10, 11, and 6, which are overlapping with each other and with other networks in the area. This can reduce the signal quality and strength, increase the noise and latency, and cause dropouts and connectivity issues. To avoid channel overlap, it is recommended to use non-overlapping channels, such as 1, 6, and 11, in the 2.4 GHz band, or to switch to the 5 GHz band if possible12.

Reference

1 - What happens when wifi channels overlap? - Server Fault

2 - Is it better to use a crowded 2.4GHz Wi-Fi channel 1, 6, 11 or ''unused'' 3, 4, 8, or 9? - Super User

A company's management team wants to implement NAC on the wired and wireless networks. Which of the following is an authentication component that must be used in this solution?

A.
IPSec
A.
IPSec
Answers
B.
802.1X
B.
802.1X
Answers
C.
EAP
C.
EAP
Answers
D.
TACACS+
D.
TACACS+
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

802.1X is an authentication component that must be used in a network access control (NAC) solution. NAC is a method of enforcing security policies on devices that want to access a network, by verifying their identity, compliance, and authorization. 802.1X is a standard that defines how to provide authentication for devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to exchange authentication information between the device (supplicant), the network access device (authenticator), and the authentication server (typically RADIUS or TACACS+). 802.1X can prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network, and can also assign them to different VLANs or apply different policies based on their role or group.

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides encryption, authentication, and integrity for IP packets. It can be used to create secure VPN tunnels between networks or hosts. IPSec is not an authentication component for NAC, but rather a security component for protecting data in transit.

EAP is a framework that supports multiple authentication methods, such as passwords, certificates, tokens, or biometrics. EAP is used by 802.1X to provide authentication for network access, but it is not a component by itself. EAP requires a carrier protocol, such as 802.1X, to transport the authentication messages.

TACACS+ is a protocol that provides authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services for network devices or users. It can be used as an authentication server for 802.1X, but it is not an authentication component for NAC by itself. TACACS+ requires a client-server protocol, such as 802.1X, to communicate with the network access device.

Reference What is 802.1X Network Access Control (NAC)? Compare TACACS + and RADIUS 802.1X: What EXACTLY is it regarding WPA and EAP? CompTIA Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition (Exam N10-008)

A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network. The customer reports that some of the PCs are not connecting to the network, while others appear to be working as intended.

INSTRUCTIONS

Troubleshoot all the network components.

Review the cable test results first, then diagnose by clicking on the appropriate PC, server, and Layer 2 switch.

Identify any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A.
See the answer and solution below
A.
See the answer and solution below
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

After a recent power outage, users are reporting performance issues accessing the application servers. Wireless users are also reporting intermittent Internet issues.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on each tab at the top of the screen. Select a widget to view information, then use the drop-down menus to answer the associated questions. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A.
See the answer and solution below
A.
See the answer and solution below
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Network Health:

WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.

Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:

WAN 1:

Uplink Speed: 10G

Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down

Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down

Loss: 2.51%

Average Latency: 24ms

Jitter: 9.5ms

WAN 2:

Uplink Speed: 1G

Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down

Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down

Loss: 0.01%

Average Latency: 11ms

Jitter: 3.9ms

For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.

Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.

Device Monitoring:

the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is theAPP Server or Router 1, which has a status ofDown. This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.

You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:

1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments

2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments.

3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.

INSTRUCTIONS

Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A.
See the answer and solution below
A.
See the answer and solution below
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A network security engineer is investigating a potentially malicious Insider on the network. The network security engineer would like to view all traffic coming from the user's PC to the switch without interrupting any traffic or having any downtime. Which of the following should the network security engineer do?

A.
Turn on port security.
A.
Turn on port security.
Answers
B.
Implement dynamic ARP inspection.
B.
Implement dynamic ARP inspection.
Answers
C.
Configure 802.1Q.
C.
Configure 802.1Q.
Answers
D.
Enable port mirroring.
D.
Enable port mirroring.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Port mirroring is a feature that allows a network switch to copy the traffic from one or more ports to another port for monitoring purposes. Port mirroring can be used to analyze the network traffic from a specific source, destination, or protocol without affecting the normal operation of the network. Port mirroring can also help to detect and troubleshoot network problems, such as performance issues, security breaches, or policy violations.

The other options are not correct because they do not meet the requirements of the question. They are:

Turn on port security. Port security is a feature that restricts the number and type of devices that can connect to a switch port. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, MAC address spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks. However, port security does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user's PC to the switch.

Implement dynamic ARP inspection. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a feature that validates the ARP packets on a network and prevents ARP spoofing attacks. DAI can help to protect the network from man-in-the-middle, denial-of-service, or data interception attacks. However, DAI does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user's PC to the switch.

Configure 802.1Q. 802.1Q is a standard that defines how to create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs) on a network. VLANs can help to segment the network into logical groups based on function, security, or performance. However, 802.1Q does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user's PC to the switch.

Reference 1:Port Mirroring - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 2:Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 3:Port Security - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 4:Dynamic ARP Inspection - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 5:802.1Q - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

Which of the following combinations of single cables and transceivers will allow a server to have 40GB of network throughput? (Select two).

A.
SFP+
A.
SFP+
Answers
B.
SFP
B.
SFP
Answers
C.
QSFP+
C.
QSFP+
Answers
D.
Multimode
D.
Multimode
Answers
E.
Cat 6a
E.
Cat 6a
Answers
F.
Cat5e
F.
Cat5e
Answers
Suggested answer: C, D

Explanation:

QSFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 40 gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) over four lanes of 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) each. QSFP+ stands for quad small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into a QSFP+ port on a network device. QSFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable.

Multimode is a type of fiber optic cable that supports multiple modes of light propagation within the core. Multimode fiber optic cable can carry higher bandwidth and data rates than single-mode fiber optic cable, but over shorter distances. Multimode fiber optic cable is commonly used for short-reach applications, such as within a data center or a campus network. Multimode fiber optic cable can be paired with QSFP+ transceivers to achieve 40GbE connectivity.

The other options are not correct because they do not support 40GbE. They are:

SFP+. SFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over a single lane. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP+ port on a network device. SFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. However, SFP+ transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.

SFP. SFP is a type of transceiver that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over a single lane. SFP stands for small form-factor pluggable, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP port on a network device. SFP transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as twisted-pair copper, coaxial cable, or fiber optic cable. However, SFP transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.

Cat 6a. Cat 6a is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 6a stands for category 6 augmented, and it is an enhanced version of Cat 6 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 6a cable can be paired with 10Gbase-T transceivers to achieve 10GbE connectivity. However, Cat 6a cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.

Cat 5e. Cat 5e is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 5e stands for category 5 enhanced, and it is an improved version of Cat 5 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 5e cable can be paired with 1000base-T transceivers to achieve 1GbE connectivity. However, Cat 5e cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.

Reference 1:QSFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 2:Multimode Fiber - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 3:Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 4:SFP+ - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 5:SFP - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 6:Cat 6a - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 7: [Cat 5e - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

Which of the following can be used to aggregate logs from different devices and would make analysis less difficult?

A.
Syslog
A.
Syslog
Answers
B.
SIEM
B.
SIEM
Answers
C.
Event logs
C.
Event logs
Answers
D.
NetFlow
D.
NetFlow
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, and it is a system that collects, normalizes, and analyzes log data from different sources in a centralized platform. SIEM can help identify security incidents, monitor network performance, and generate reports and alerts.SIEM can make log analysis less difficult by providing a unified view of the log data, correlating events across different devices, and applying rules and filters to detect anomalies and patterns12.

A network technician is responding to an issue with a local company. To which of the following documents should the network technician refer to determine the scope of the issue?

A.
MTTR
A.
MTTR
Answers
B.
MOU
B.
MOU
Answers
C.
NDA
C.
NDA
Answers
D.
SLA
D.
SLA
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

SLA stands for Service Level Agreement, and it is a contract that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. SLA can specify the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the penalties for non-compliance and the procedures for resolving issues.SLA can help the network technician determine the scope of the issue by providing the baseline and target values for the service, the escalation process and contacts, and the service credits or remedies for the customer45.

CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - Chapter 15: Network Troubleshooting Methodology35: What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? | ITIL | AXELOS

Total 865 questions
Go to page: of 87