ExamGecko
Home Home / CompTIA / N10-008

CompTIA N10-008 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 79

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











A homeowner frequently has guests visit and would like to install a wireless router for their personal devices. The homeowner wants to ensure that the wireless router is compatible with the widest range of devices possible. Which of the following standards should a technician suggest?

A.
802 11ac
A.
802 11ac
Answers
B.
802.11b
B.
802.11b
Answers
C.
802 11g
C.
802 11g
Answers
D.
802.11n
D.
802.11n
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

802.11ac is the latest wireless standard that supports the highest data rates and the most devices. It is backward compatible with previous standards such as 802.11b/g/n, so it can work with older devices as well. 802.11b is the oldest and slowest standard, 802.11g is faster but still outdated, and 802.11n is newer but not as fast or widespread as 802.11ac

Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? {Select two).

A.
KVM size
A.
KVM size
Answers
B.
Switch depth
B.
Switch depth
Answers
C.
Hard drive size
C.
Hard drive size
Answers
D.
Cooling fan speed
D.
Cooling fan speed
Answers
E.
Outlet amperage
E.
Outlet amperage
Answers
F.
Server height
F.
Server height
Answers
Suggested answer: B, F

Explanation:

The size of a rack for installation depends on several factors, such as the available space, the power and cooling requirements, and the dimensions of the equipment to be installed. Two of the most important dimensions to consider are the switch depth and the server height. Switch depth refers to the length of the switch from front to back, which determines how much space is needed inside the rack. Server height refers to the vertical space occupied by the server, which is measured in rack units (RU) or U. One rack unit is equal to 1.75 inches. The height of the rack should be able to accommodate the total number of rack units needed for the servers and other devices, as well as some extra space for cable management and airflow.Reference:CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Chapter 2, Section 2.5

A company wants to mitigate unauthorized physical connectivity after implementing a hybrid work schedule. Which of the following will the company most likely configure?

A.
Intrusion prevention system
A.
Intrusion prevention system
Answers
B.
DHCP snooping
B.
DHCP snooping
Answers
C.
ARP inspection
C.
ARP inspection
Answers
D.
Port security
D.
Port security
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Port security is a feature that allows network administrators to limit the number of devices that can connect to a switch port, based on the MAC address of the device. This can prevent unauthorized physical connectivity by blocking any device that is not on the allowed list or exceeding the maximum number of devices per port. Port security can also trigger an action, such as shutting down the port or sending an alert, when a violation occurs.Reference:CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - O'Reilly Media, Chapter 14: Securing a Basic Network, page 512

A technician is troubleshooting airport about network connectivity issues on a workstation. Upon investigation, the technician notes the workstation is showing an APIPA address on the network interface. The technician verifies that the VLAN assignment is correct and that the network interface has connectivity. Which of the following is most likely the issue the workstation is experiencing?

A.
DHCP exhaustion
A.
DHCP exhaustion
Answers
B.
A rogue DHCP server
B.
A rogue DHCP server
Answers
C.
A DNS server outage
C.
A DNS server outage
Answers
D.
An incorrect subnet mask
D.
An incorrect subnet mask
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

DHCP exhaustion is a situation where the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses to assign to clients. This can happen due to misconfiguration, malicious attacks, or high demand. When a client requests an IP address from the DHCP server and does not receive a response, it may resort to using an APIPA address, which is a self-assigned address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254. APIPA addresses are only valid for local communication and cannot access the internet or other networks. Therefore, a workstation showing an APIPA address indicates that it failed to obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server, most likely due to DHCP exhaustion

A Chief Information Officer wants to monitor network breaching in a passive, controlled manner. Which of the following would be best to implement?

A.
Honeypot
A.
Honeypot
Answers
B.
Perimeter network
B.
Perimeter network
Answers
C.
Intrusion prevention system
C.
Intrusion prevention system
Answers
D.
Port security
D.
Port security
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A honeypot is a decoy system that is designed to attract and trap hackers who attempt to breach the network. A honeypot mimics a real system or network, but contains fake or non-sensitive data and applications. A honeypot can be used to monitor network breaching in a passive, controlled manner, as it allows the network administrator to observe the hacker's behavior, techniques, and tools without compromising the actual network or data. A honeypot can also help to divert the hacker's attention from the real targets and collect forensic evidence for further analysis or prosecution.

A technician is troubleshooting servers with high CPU usage. While trying to connect, the technician needs to open a port for remote access. Which of the following ports should the technician open?

A.
443
A.
443
Answers
B.
3321
B.
3321
Answers
C.
8080
C.
8080
Answers
D.
5900
D.
5900
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Port 5900 is the default port used by Virtual Network Computing (VNC), a graphical desktop-sharing system that allows remote access to another computer's screen, keyboard and mouse1. VNC is one of the tools that can be used for remote troubleshooting of servers with high CPU usage, as it enables the technician to see the server's desktop and perform actions on it. Port 5900 is also one of the ports listed in the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 exam objectives under the section '1.4 Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues'2.

The other ports are not commonly used for remote access. Port 443 is used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the communication between a web browser and a web server3. Port 3321 is used for Telepathy Broker Service, a service that provides communication between applications and telephony devices4. Port 8080 is used for HTTP Alternate, an alternative port for HTTP that is often used by web servers for testing or proxy purposes5.

Reference

1: Port 5900: What Is It Used for & How to Open It for RDP

2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications

3: [What is HTTPS? - Definition from WhatIs.com]

4: [Telepathy Broker Service - Port 3321 - TCP/UDP]

5: [What is Port 8080? Why do some processes use this port?]

Which of the following most likely occurs when an attacker is between the target and a legitimate server?

A.
IP spoofing
A.
IP spoofing
Answers
B.
VLAN hopping
B.
VLAN hopping
Answers
C.
Rogue DHCP
C.
Rogue DHCP
Answers
D.
On-path attack
D.
On-path attack
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An on-path attack (also known as a man-in-the-middle attack) is a type of security attack where the attacker places themselves between two devices (often a web browser and a web server) and intercepts or modifies communications between the two1. The attacker can then collect information as well as impersonate either of the two agents. For example, an on-path attacker could capture login credentials, redirect traffic to malicious sites, or inject malware into legitimate web pages.

The other options are not correct because they describe different types of attacks:

* IP spoofing is the practice of forging the source IP address of a packet to make it appear as if it came from a trusted or authorized source2.

* VLAN hopping is a technique that allows an attacker to access a VLAN that they are not authorized to access by sending packets with a modified VLAN tag3.

* Rogue DHCP is a scenario where an unauthorized DHCP server offers IP configuration parameters to clients on a network, potentially causing network disruption or redirection to malicious sites4.

Reference

2: Understanding Targeted Attacks: What is a Targeted Attack?

3: Types of attacks - Security on the web | MDN

1: What is an on-path attacker? | Cloudflare

4: [What is a Rogue DHCP Server? - Definition from Techopedia]

An administrator wants to host services on the internet using an internal server. The server is configured with an RFC1918 address, and the administrator wants to make the services that are hosted on the server available on one of the company's public IP addresses. Which of the following should the administrator configure to allow this access?

A.
IPv6 tunneling
A.
IPv6 tunneling
Answers
B.
Virtual IP
B.
Virtual IP
Answers
C.
Dual stack
C.
Dual stack
Answers
D.
EUI-64
D.
EUI-64
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A virtual IP (VIP) is an IP address that is shared by multiple servers or devices on a network. A VIP can be used to provide load balancing, failover, or high availability for services that are hosted on the network. A VIP can also be used to map an internal server's private IP address to a public IP address, allowing the server to host services on the internet. This is also known as network address translation (NAT) or port forwarding.

The other options are not correct because they are not related to mapping an internal server's IP address to a public IP address. They are:

* IPv6 tunneling is a technique that allows IPv6 packets to be encapsulated and transmitted over an IPv4 network.

* Dual stack is a configuration that allows a device to support both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols simultaneously.

* EUI-64 is a method of generating a 64-bit interface identifier for an IPv6 address based on the 48-bit MAC address of the device.

Reference

: What is a Virtual IP Address (VIP)? - Definition from Techopedia

: IPv6 Tunneling - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

: Dual Stack Definition

: [EUI-64 - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

An online gaming company needs a cloud solution that will allow for more virtual resources to be deployed when tournaments are held. The number of users who access the service increases during tournaments. The company also needs the resources to return to baseline levels once the resources are not needed in order to reduce cost. Which of the following cloud concepts would provide the best solution?

A.
Scalability
A.
Scalability
Answers
B.
Hybrid
B.
Hybrid
Answers
C.
Multitenancy
C.
Multitenancy
Answers
D.
Elasticity
D.
Elasticity
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Elasticity is the ability of a cloud service to automatically adjust the amount of resources allocated to meet the changing demand of the users. Elasticity enables a cloud service to scale up or down resources quickly and efficiently, without requiring manual intervention or planning. Elasticity is ideal for scenarios where the demand is unpredictable, dynamic, or seasonal, such as online gaming tournaments. By using elasticity, the online gaming company can ensure optimal performance and user experience during peak times, while also saving costs and avoiding overprovisioning during off-peak times.

The other options are not correct because they do not address the specific needs of the online gaming company. They are:

* Scalability is the ability of a cloud service to handle an increase or decrease in the demand of the users by adding or removing resources. Scalability is similar to elasticity, but it is more manual, planned, and predictive, while elasticity is automatic, prompt, and reactive. Scalability is suitable for scenarios where the demand is steady, predictable, or gradual, such as a growing business or a long-term project.

* Hybrid is a type of cloud model that combines two or more clouds, such as on-premises private, hosted private, or public, that can be centrally managed to enable interoperability for various use cases. Hybrid cloud can offer benefits such as flexibility, security, and cost-efficiency, but it does not directly address the need for dynamic resource allocation for the online gaming company.

* Multitenancy is a feature of cloud services that allows multiple users or customers to share the same physical or virtual resources, such as servers, databases, or applications, while maintaining isolation and privacy. Multitenancy can offer benefits such as efficiency, scalability, and cost-effectiveness, but it does not directly address the need for dynamic resource allocation for the online gaming company.

Reference

1: Understand cloud concepts | Microsoft Press Store

2: What Is Hybrid Cloud? - Cisco

3: Difference between Elasticity and Scalability in Cloud Computing

4: Scalability and Elasticity in Cloud Computing - GeeksforGeeks

A network administrator is trying to create a subnet, which is the most efficient size possible, for 31 laptops. Which of the following network subnets would be best in this situation?

A.
10.10.10.0/24
A.
10.10.10.0/24
Answers
B.
10.10.10.0/25
B.
10.10.10.0/25
Answers
C.
10.10.10.0/26
C.
10.10.10.0/26
Answers
D.
10.10.10.0/27
D.
10.10.10.0/27
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A /27 subnet mask has 32 IP addresses, of which 30 are usable for hosts. This is the smallest subnet that can accommodate 31 laptops, as the other options have either too few or too many IP addresses. A /27 subnet mask is equivalent to 255.255.255.224 in decimal notation, and has a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.31. The network address is 10.10.10.0, and the broadcast address is 10.10.10.31. The usable host range is 10.10.10.1 to 10.10.10.30.

Reference

1: Subnet Cheat Sheet -- 24 Subnet Mask, 30, 26, 27, 29, and other IP Address CIDR Network Reference

2: IP Subnet Calculator

Total 865 questions
Go to page: of 87