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The network's IDS is giving multiple alerts that unauthorized traffic from a critical application server is being sent to a known-bad public IP address.

One of the alerts contains the following information:

Exploit Alert Attempted User Privilege Gain 2/2/07-3: 09:09 10.1.200.32

--> 208.206.12.9:80

This server application is part of a cluster in which two other servers are also servicing clients. The server administrator has verified the other servers are not sending out traffic to that public IP address. The IP address subnet of the application servers is 10.1.200.0/26. Which of the following should the administrator perform to ensure only authorized traffic is being sent from the application server and downtime is minimized? (Select two).

A.
Disable all services on the affected application server.
A.
Disable all services on the affected application server.
Answers
B.
Perform a vulnerability scan on all the servers within the cluster and patch accordingly.
B.
Perform a vulnerability scan on all the servers within the cluster and patch accordingly.
Answers
C.
Block access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network.
C.
Block access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network.
Answers
D.
Change the IP address of all the servers in the cluster to the 208.206.12.0/26 subnet.
D.
Change the IP address of all the servers in the cluster to the 208.206.12.0/26 subnet.
Answers
E.
Enable GPO to install an antivirus on all the servers and perform a weekly reboot.
E.
Enable GPO to install an antivirus on all the servers and perform a weekly reboot.
Answers
F.
Perform an antivirus scan on all servers within the cluster and reboot each server.
F.
Perform an antivirus scan on all servers within the cluster and reboot each server.
Answers
Suggested answer: B, F

Explanation:

The administrator should perform an antivirus scan on all servers within the cluster and reboot each server, and block access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network. These actions will help to remove any malware that may have infected the application server and prevent any further unauthorized traffic to the known-bad public IP address. An antivirus scan can detect and remove malicious software that may be sending data to an external source, and a reboot can clear any temporary files or processes that may be related to the malware. Blocking access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network can prevent any future attempts to communicate with the malicious IP address.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.4, Objective 3.4; Chapter 6, Lesson 6.2, Objective 6.2

An organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites. The organization wants to ensure the tapes are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. Which of the following actions should the organization perform?

A.
Have the facility inspect and inventory the tapes on a regular basis.
A.
Have the facility inspect and inventory the tapes on a regular basis.
Answers
B.
Have duplicate equipment available at the cold site.
B.
Have duplicate equipment available at the cold site.
Answers
C.
Retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them.
C.
Retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them.
Answers
D.
Use the test equipment at the cold site to read the tapes.
D.
Use the test equipment at the cold site to read the tapes.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The organization should retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them to ensure they are properly maintained and usable during a DR scenario. A cold site is a location that has space and power for backup equipment, but no actual equipment installed or configured. The organization stores backup tapes of its servers at cold sites as a precaution in case of a disaster that affects its primary site. However, backup tapes can degrade over time due to environmental factors such as temperature, humidity, dust, or magnetic fields. Therefore, the organization should periodically retrieve the tapes from the cold site and test them on compatible equipment to verify their integrity and readability.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, Lesson 6.4, Objective 6.4

A server administrator needs to ensure all Window-based servers within a data center have RDP disabled. There are thousands of servers performing various roles. Which of the following is the best way to meet this requirement?

A. Run chkconfig ЧЧ1eve1 345 RDP off.

B. Create a PowerSheII script to disable the RDP service.

C. Run chkconfig ЧЧ list RDP.

D. Create a Bash shell script to disable the Windows Remote Management service.

E. Create a GPO to disable the Windows Remote Management service.

A.
Run chkconfig --level 345 RDP off.
A.
Run chkconfig --level 345 RDP off.
Answers
B.
Create a PowerSheII script to disable the RDP service.
B.
Create a PowerSheII script to disable the RDP service.
Answers
C.
Run chkconfig --list RDP.
C.
Run chkconfig --list RDP.
Answers
D.
Create a Bash shell script to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
D.
Create a Bash shell script to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
Answers
E.
Create a GPO to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
E.
Create a GPO to disable the Windows Remote Management service.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best way to meet this requirement is to create a PowerShell script to disable the RDP service on all Windows-based servers within a data center. PowerShell is a scripting language and commandline tool that can be used to automate tasks and manage Windows systems remotely. A PowerShell script can use cmdlets (commands) and parameters to perform actions on multiple servers at once, such as disabling a service or changing a configuration setting. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is a service that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. Disabling RDP can improve security by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the servers.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3; Chapter 7, Lesson 7.1, Objective 7.1

A technician is configuring a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing. Which of the following is the most efficient subnet mask for this connection?

A.
/28
A.
/28
Answers
B.
/29
B.
/29
Answers
C.
/30
C.
/30
Answers
D.
/32
D.
/32
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The most efficient subnet mask for a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing is /30. A /30 subnet mask has 255.255.255.252 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111100 as its binary representation. This means that there are only two bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for four possible combinations:

00, 01, 10, and 11. However, the first and the last combinations are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, only two IP addresses are usable for the point-topoint connection, which is the minimum required for such a link. A /30 subnet mask is also known as a point-to-point prefix because it is commonly used for point-to-point links between routers or servers1.

A /28 subnet mask has 255.255.255.240 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000 as its binary representation. This means that there are four bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for 16 possible combinations.

However, two of them are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively.

Therefore, 14 IP addresses are usable for the subnet, which is more than needed for a point-to-point connection and would result in wasted addresses.

A /29 subnet mask has 255.255.255.248 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000 as its binary representation. This means that there are three bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for eight possible combinations. However, two of them are reserved for the network address and the broadcast address, respectively. Therefore, six IP addresses are usable for the subnet, which is still more than needed for a point-to-point connection and would result in wasted addresses.

A /32 subnet mask has 255.255.255.255 as its decimal representation and 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111111 as its binary representation. This means that there are no bits available for the host portion of the IP address, which allows for only one possible combination:

all ones. Therefore, only one IP address is usable for the subnet, which is not enough for a point-topoint connection and would result in an invalid configuration.

Therefore, a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient choice for a point-to-point heartbeat connection between two servers using IP addressing because it provides exactly two usable IP addresses without wasting any addresses or creating any conflicts1.

An organization recently experienced power outages. The administrator noticed the server did not have enough time to shut down properly. After the outages, the administrator had additional batteries installed in the UPS. Which of the following best describes the solution the administrator implemented?

A.
The solution reduced shutdown time.
A.
The solution reduced shutdown time.
Answers
B.
The solution improved load balancing,
B.
The solution improved load balancing,
Answers
C.
The solution increased power out.
C.
The solution increased power out.
Answers
D.
The solution extended runtime.
D.
The solution extended runtime.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The solution the administrator implemented extended runtime. Runtime is the amount of time that a UPS can provide backup power to a server in case of a power outage. By installing additional batteries in the UPS, the administrator increased the capacity and duration of the backup power, allowing the server more time to shut down properly.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.4, Objective 1.4

Which of the following concepts is in use when dual power supplies are connected to different power sources?

A.
Fault tolerance
A.
Fault tolerance
Answers
B.
Active-passive
B.
Active-passive
Answers
C.
Component redundancy
C.
Component redundancy
Answers
D.
Heartbeat
D.
Heartbeat
Answers
E.
Link aggregation
E.
Link aggregation
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The concept in use when dual power supplies are connected to different power sources is fault tolerance. Fault tolerance is the ability of a system to continue operating without interruption or loss of data in the event of a failure of one or more components. By connecting dual power supplies to different power sources, the system can switch to the alternative power supply or source if one fails, ensuring continuous availability and reliability.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.3, Objective 1.3

A systems administrator is setting up a server farm for a new company. The company has a public range of IP addresses and uses the addresses internally. Which of the following IP addresses best fits this scenario?

A.
10.3.7.27
A.
10.3.7.27
Answers
B.
127.0.0.1
B.
127.0.0.1
Answers
C.
192.168.7.1
C.
192.168.7.1
Answers
D.
216,176,128.10
D.
216,176,128.10
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The IP address that best fits this scenario is 216.176.128.10. This is a public IP address that belongs to a range of addresses that are assigned and registered by an Internet service provider (ISP) and can be accessed from anywhere on the Internet. The company has a public range of IP addresses and uses them internally, which means that they do not use private IP addresses or network address translation (NAT) to communicate within their network.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.2, Objective 2.2

Which of the following is the most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party?

A.
Third-party acceptable use policy
A.
Third-party acceptable use policy
Answers
B.
Customer data encryption and masking
B.
Customer data encryption and masking
Answers
C.
Non-disclosure and indemnity agreements
C.
Non-disclosure and indemnity agreements
Answers
D.
Service- and operational-level agreements
D.
Service- and operational-level agreements
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The most effective way to mitigate risks associated with privacy-related data leaks when sharing with a third party is customer data encryption and masking. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a key or password. Masking is a process of hiding or replacing sensitive data with fake or meaningless dat a. By encrypting and masking customer data, the organization can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure by the third party.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

A Linux server was recently updated. Now, the server stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an f prompt. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.
The system is booting to a USB flash drive.
A.
The system is booting to a USB flash drive.
Answers
B.
The UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file.
B.
The UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file.
Answers
C.
The BIOS could not find a bootable hard disk.
C.
The BIOS could not find a bootable hard disk.
Answers
D.
The BIOS firmware needs to be upgraded.
D.
The BIOS firmware needs to be upgraded.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The most likely cause of this issue is that the UEFI boot was interrupted by a missing Linux boot file. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a standard that defines the interface and functionality of the firmware that initializes the hardware and software components of a system before loading the operating system. UEFI boot is a process that uses UEFI firmware to load and execute a boot loader, which is a program that loads the operating system kernel and other essential files. A Linux boot file is a file that contains information and instructions for the boot loader, such as the location of the kernel, the root file system, and the boot parameters. If a Linux boot file is missing or corrupted, the boot loader cannot find or load the kernel, and the system stops during the boot process with a blank screen and an f prompt.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.1, Objective 4.1

Which of the following is used for fail over, providing access to all the services currently in use by an organization without having to physically move any servers or employees?

A.
The cloud
A.
The cloud
Answers
B.
A cold site
B.
A cold site
Answers
C.
A warm site
C.
A warm site
Answers
D.
An emergency operations center
D.
An emergency operations center
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The solution that is used for failover, providing access to all the services currently in use by an organization without having to physically move any servers or employees, is the cloud. The cloud is a term that refers to a network of remote servers that are hosted on the Internet and provide various services, such as storage, computing, networking, and applications. The cloud can be used for failover, which is a backup operation that automatically switches to a standby system or service in case of a failure or disruption of the primary system or service. By using the cloud for failover, an organization can ensure continuous availability and accessibility of its services without requiring any physical relocation or intervention.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, Lesson 6.4, Objective 6.4

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