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A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:

* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24

subnet.

* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen

to port 4022.

* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single

workstation.

* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.

* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight

days.

* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.

* Cleartext services are not allowed.

* All devices must be hardened when possible.

Instructions:

Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.

Click on Server A to review output dat

a. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh

WAP A

PC A

Laptop A

Switch A

Switch B:

Laptop B

PC B

PC C

Server A


A.
See the Explanation below for the solution.
A.
See the Explanation below for the solution.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B:Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned about the possibility of employees downloading 'malicious files from the internet and 'opening them on corporate workstations. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to reduce this risk?

A.
Integrate the web proxy with threat intelligence feeds.
A.
Integrate the web proxy with threat intelligence feeds.
Answers
B.
Scan all downloads using an antivirus engine on the web proxy.
B.
Scan all downloads using an antivirus engine on the web proxy.
Answers
C.
Block known malware sites on the web proxy.
C.
Block known malware sites on the web proxy.
Answers
D.
Execute the files in the sandbox on the web proxy.
D.
Execute the files in the sandbox on the web proxy.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.

To save time, a company that is developing a new VPN solution has decided to use the OpenSSL library within Its proprietary software. Which of the following should the company consider to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL?

A.
Include stable, long-term releases of third-party libraries instead of using newer versions.
A.
Include stable, long-term releases of third-party libraries instead of using newer versions.
Answers
B.
Ensure the third-party library implements the TLS and disable weak ciphers.
B.
Ensure the third-party library implements the TLS and disable weak ciphers.
Answers
C.
Compile third-party libraries into the main code statically instead of using dynamic loading.
C.
Compile third-party libraries into the main code statically instead of using dynamic loading.
Answers
D.
Implement an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing.
D.
Implement an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party software and library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.

Which of the following testing plans is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions?

A.
Disaster recovery checklist
A.
Disaster recovery checklist
Answers
B.
Tabletop exercise
B.
Tabletop exercise
Answers
C.
Full interruption test
C.
Full interruption test
Answers
D.
Parallel test
D.
Parallel test
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A tabletop exercise is a type of testing plan that is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential disaster or incident that involves a verbal or written discussion of how each department would respond to it. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to identify gaps, weaknesses, or conflicts in the disaster recovery plan, and to improve communication and coordination among the team members.

A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process 'memory location. Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

A.
Execute never
A.
Execute never
Answers
B.
Noexecute
B.
Noexecute
Answers
C.
Total memory encryption
C.
Total memory encryption
Answers
D.
Virtual memory protection
D.
Virtual memory protection
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process' memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process' memory space.

A mobile administrator is reviewing the following mobile device DHCP logs to ensure the proper mobile settings are applied to managed devices:

Which of the following mobile configuration settings is the mobile administrator verifying?

A.
Service set identifier authentication
A.
Service set identifier authentication
Answers
B.
Wireless network auto joining
B.
Wireless network auto joining
Answers
C.
802.1X with mutual authentication
C.
802.1X with mutual authentication
Answers
D.
Association MAC address randomization
D.
Association MAC address randomization
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID ''CorpWiFi'', which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is working with a new company and needs a legal ''document to ensure all parties understand their roles during an assessment. Which of the following should the CISO have each party sign?

A.
SLA
A.
SLA
Answers
B.
ISA
B.
ISA
Answers
C.
Permissions and access
C.
Permissions and access
Answers
D.
Rules of engagement
D.
Rules of engagement
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.

An organization established an agreement with a partner company for specialized help desk services. A senior security officer within the organization Is tasked with providing documentation required to set up a dedicated VPN between the two entities. Which of the following should be required?

A.
SLA
A.
SLA
Answers
B.
ISA
B.
ISA
Answers
C.
NDA
C.
NDA
Answers
D.
MOU
D.
MOU
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) requested the security team implement technical controls that meet the following requirements:

* Monitors traffic to and from both local NAS and cloud-based file repositories

* Prevents on-site staff who are accessing sensitive customer Pll documents on file repositories from accidentally or deliberately sharing sensitive documents on personal Saa$S solutions

* Uses document attributes to reduce false positives

* Is agentless and not installed on staff desktops or laptops

Which of the following when installed and configured would BEST meet the CSO's requirements? (Select TWO).

A.
DLP
A.
DLP
Answers
B.
NGFW
B.
NGFW
Answers
C.
UTM
C.
UTM
Answers
D.
UEBA
D.
UEBA
Answers
E.
CASB
E.
CASB
Answers
F.
HIPS
F.
HIPS
Answers
Suggested answer: A, E

Explanation:

DLP, or data loss prevention, and CASB, or cloud access security broker, are the solutions that when installed and configured would best meet the CSO's requirements. DLP is a technology that monitors and prevents unauthorized or accidental data leakage or exfiltration from an organization's network or devices. DLP can use document attributes, such as metadata, keywords, or fingerprints, to identify and classify sensitive data and enforce policies on how they can be accessed, transferred, or shared. CASB is a technology that acts as a proxy or intermediary between an organization's cloud services and its users. CASB can provide visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security for cloud-based applications and data. CASB can also prevent on-site staff from accessing personal SaaS solutions that are not authorized by the organization.

An organization is running its e-commerce site in the cloud. The capacity is sufficient to meet the organization's needs throughout most of the year, except during the holidays when the organization plans to introduce a new line of products and expects an increase in traffic. The organization is not sure how well its products will be received. To address this issue, the organization needs to ensure that:

* System capacity is optimized.

* Cost is reduced.

Which of the following should be implemented to address these requirements? (Select TWO).

A.
Containerization
A.
Containerization
Answers
B.
Load balancer
B.
Load balancer
Answers
C.
Microsegmentation
C.
Microsegmentation
Answers
D.
Autoscaling
D.
Autoscaling
Answers
E.
CDN
E.
CDN
Answers
F.
WAF
F.
WAF
Answers
Suggested answer: B, D

Explanation:

Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.

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