CompTIA CAS-004 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 27
List of questions
Question 261

A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24
subnet.
* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen
to port 4022.
* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single
workstation.
* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight
days.
* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
* Cleartext services are not allowed.
* All devices must be hardened when possible.
Instructions:
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output dat
a. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh
WAP A
PC A
Laptop A
Switch A
Switch B:
Laptop B
PC B
PC C
Server A
WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic
This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.
Laptop A: Patch management
This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.
Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Laptop B: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.
PC B:Enable disk encryption
This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.
PC C: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:
sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config
Server A. Need to select the following:
Question 262

The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned about the possibility of employees downloading 'malicious files from the internet and 'opening them on corporate workstations. Which of the following solutions would be BEST to reduce this risk?
Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.
Question 263

To save time, a company that is developing a new VPN solution has decided to use the OpenSSL library within Its proprietary software. Which of the following should the company consider to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL?
Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party software and library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.
Question 264

Which of the following testing plans is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions?
A tabletop exercise is a type of testing plan that is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential disaster or incident that involves a verbal or written discussion of how each department would respond to it. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to identify gaps, weaknesses, or conflicts in the disaster recovery plan, and to improve communication and coordination among the team members.
Question 265

A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process 'memory location. Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?
Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process' memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process' memory space.
Question 266

A mobile administrator is reviewing the following mobile device DHCP logs to ensure the proper mobile settings are applied to managed devices:
Which of the following mobile configuration settings is the mobile administrator verifying?
Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID ''CorpWiFi'', which indicates that they are auto joining this network.
Question 267

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is working with a new company and needs a legal ''document to ensure all parties understand their roles during an assessment. Which of the following should the CISO have each party sign?
Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.
Question 268

An organization established an agreement with a partner company for specialized help desk services. A senior security officer within the organization Is tasked with providing documentation required to set up a dedicated VPN between the two entities. Which of the following should be required?
An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.
Question 269

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) requested the security team implement technical controls that meet the following requirements:
* Monitors traffic to and from both local NAS and cloud-based file repositories
* Prevents on-site staff who are accessing sensitive customer Pll documents on file repositories from accidentally or deliberately sharing sensitive documents on personal Saa$S solutions
* Uses document attributes to reduce false positives
* Is agentless and not installed on staff desktops or laptops
Which of the following when installed and configured would BEST meet the CSO's requirements? (Select TWO).
DLP, or data loss prevention, and CASB, or cloud access security broker, are the solutions that when installed and configured would best meet the CSO's requirements. DLP is a technology that monitors and prevents unauthorized or accidental data leakage or exfiltration from an organization's network or devices. DLP can use document attributes, such as metadata, keywords, or fingerprints, to identify and classify sensitive data and enforce policies on how they can be accessed, transferred, or shared. CASB is a technology that acts as a proxy or intermediary between an organization's cloud services and its users. CASB can provide visibility, compliance, threat protection, and data security for cloud-based applications and data. CASB can also prevent on-site staff from accessing personal SaaS solutions that are not authorized by the organization.
Question 270

An organization is running its e-commerce site in the cloud. The capacity is sufficient to meet the organization's needs throughout most of the year, except during the holidays when the organization plans to introduce a new line of products and expects an increase in traffic. The organization is not sure how well its products will be received. To address this issue, the organization needs to ensure that:
* System capacity is optimized.
* Cost is reduced.
Which of the following should be implemented to address these requirements? (Select TWO).
Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.
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