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A cloud security engineer is setting up a cloud-hosted WAF. The engineer needs to implement a solution to protect the multiple websites the organization hosts. The organization websites are:

* www.mycompany.org

* www.mycompany.com

* campus.mycompany.com

* wiki. mycompany.org

The solution must save costs and be able to protect all websites. Users should be able to notify the cloud security engineer of any on-path attacks. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A.
Purchase one SAN certificate.
A.
Purchase one SAN certificate.
Answers
B.
Implement self-signed certificates.
B.
Implement self-signed certificates.
Answers
C.
Purchase one certificate for each website.
C.
Purchase one certificate for each website.
Answers
D.
Purchase one wildcard certificate.
D.
Purchase one wildcard certificate.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

A cloud security architect has been tasked with selecting the appropriate solution given the following:

* The solution must allow the lowest RTO possible.

* The solution must have the least shared responsibility possible.

Patching should be a responsibility of the CSP.

Which of the following solutions can BEST fulfill the requirements?

A.
Paas
A.
Paas
Answers
B.
laas
B.
laas
Answers
C.
Private
C.
Private
Answers
D.
Saas
D.
Saas
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

A security manager has written an incident response playbook for insider attacks and is ready to begin testing it. Which of the following should the manager conduct to test the playbook?

A.
Automated vulnerability scanning
A.
Automated vulnerability scanning
Answers
B.
Centralized logging, data analytics, and visualization
B.
Centralized logging, data analytics, and visualization
Answers
C.
Threat hunting
C.
Threat hunting
Answers
D.
Threat emulation
D.
Threat emulation
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Threat emulation is the method that should be used to test an incident response playbook for insider attacks. Threat emulation is a technique that simulates real-world attacks using realistic scenarios, tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of threat actors. Threat emulation can help evaluate the effectiveness of an incident response plan by testing how well it can detect, respond to, contain, eradicate, recover from, and learn from an attack.

An IPSec solution is being deployed. The configuration files for both the VPN

concentrator and the AAA server are shown in the diagram.

Complete the configuration files to meet the following requirements:

* The EAP method must use mutual certificate-based authentication (With

issued client certificates).

* The IKEv2 Cipher suite must be configured to the MOST secure

authenticated mode of operation,

* The secret must contain at least one uppercase character, one lowercase

character, one numeric character, and one special character, and it must

meet a minimum length requirement of eight characters,

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on the AAA server and VPN concentrator to complete the configuration.

Fill in the appropriate fields and make selections from the drop-down menus.

VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

A.
See the Explanation below for the solution.
A.
See the Explanation below for the solution.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:


VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

In a cloud environment, the provider offers relief to an organization's teams by sharing in many of the operational duties. In a shared responsibility model, which of the following responsibilities belongs to the provider in a Paas implementation?

A.
Application-specific data assets
A.
Application-specific data assets
Answers
B.
Application user access management
B.
Application user access management
Answers
C.
Application-specific logic and code
C.
Application-specific logic and code
Answers
D.
Application/platform software
D.
Application/platform software
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:


A) Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B) Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must also ensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C) Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant. https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS


In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization's teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A security architect recommends replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution. Historically, secrets have been stored in the application's configuration files. Which of the following changes should the security architect make in the new system?

A.
Use a secrets management tool.
A.
Use a secrets management tool.
Answers
B.
'Save secrets in key escrow.
B.
'Save secrets in key escrow.
Answers
C.
Store the secrets inside the Dockerfiles.
C.
Store the secrets inside the Dockerfiles.
Answers
D.
Run all Dockerfles in a randomized namespace.
D.
Run all Dockerfles in a randomized namespace.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:


B) Saving secrets in key escrow is not a recommended solution for replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the operational challenges of managing secrets for containers. Key escrow is a process of storing cryptographic keys with a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not provide the same level of security and automation as a secrets management tool.

C) Storing the secrets inside the Dockerfiles is not a recommended solution for replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it exposes the secrets to anyone who can access the Dockerfiles or the images built from them. Storing secrets inside the Dockerfiles is equivalent to hardcoding them into the application code, which is a bad practice that violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of secrets leakage or compromise.

D) Running all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is not a recommended solution for replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the issue of storing and managing secrets for containers. Running Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is a technique to avoid name conflicts and collisions between containers, but it does not provide any security benefits for secrets.


A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company's monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.

The CI/CD pipeline requires code to have close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. The current process for any code releases into production uses two-week Agile sprints. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirement?

A.
An open-source automation server
A.
An open-source automation server
Answers
B.
A static code analyzer
B.
A static code analyzer
Answers
C.
Trusted open-source libraries
C.
Trusted open-source libraries
Answers
D.
A single code repository for all developers
D.
A single code repository for all developers
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:


A) An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C) Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D) A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself. https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/ https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis


A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its 'static' state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

Which of the following BEST describes a common use case for homomorphic encryption?

A.
Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit
A.
Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit
Answers
B.
Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing
B.
Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing
Answers
C.
Transmitting confidential data to a CSP for processing on a large number of resources without revealing information
C.
Transmitting confidential data to a CSP for processing on a large number of resources without revealing information
Answers
D.
Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users
D.
Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:


A) Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data in transit.

B) Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest and in transit.

D) Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not involve any computation over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest. https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/homomorphic-encryption.html https://research.aimultiple.com/homomorphic-encryption/


Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption method that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without first decrypting it with a secret key. The results of the computations also remain encrypted and can only be decrypted by the owner of the private key. Homomorphic encryption can be used for privacy-preserving outsourced storage and computation. This means that data can be encrypted and sent to a cloud service provider (CSP) for processing, without revealing any information to the CSP or anyone else who might intercept the data. Homomorphic encryption can enable new services and applications that require processing confidential data on a large number of resources, such as machine learning, data analytics, health care, finance, and voting.

Which of the following describes the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely?

A.
Key escrow
A.
Key escrow
Answers
B.
TPM
B.
TPM
Answers
C.
Trust models
C.
Trust models
Answers
D.
Code signing
D.
Code signing
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:


B) TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.

C) Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.

D) Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.


Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.

An organization is looking to establish more robust security measures by implementing PKI. Which of the following should the security analyst implement when considering mutual authentication?

A.
Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints
A.
Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints
Answers
B.
Shared secret for both endpoints
B.
Shared secret for both endpoints
Answers
C.
Public keys on both endpoints
C.
Public keys on both endpoints
Answers
D.
A common public key on each endpoint
D.
A common public key on each endpoint
Answers
E.
A common private key on each endpoint
E.
A common private key on each endpoint
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:


A) Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a property of encryption protocols that ensures that the compromise of a long-term secret key (such as a private key) does not affect the security of past or future session keys (such as symmetric keys). PFS can enhance the security and privacy of encrypted communications, but it does not provide authentication by itself.

B) Shared secret for both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Shared secret is a method of authentication that relies on a pre-shared piece of information (such as a password or a passphrase) that is known only to both parties. Shared secret can provide simple and fast authentication, but it does not provide non-repudiation or identity verification.

D) A common public key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common public key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and private key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

E) A common private key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common private key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and public key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.


Public keys on both endpoints are required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates are issued by trusted authorities called Certificate Authorities (CAs), and can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders. Mutual authentication is a process in which two parties authenticate each other at the same time using certificates. Mutual authentication can provide stronger security and privacy than one-way authentication, where only one party is authenticated. In PKI-based mutual authentication, each party has a certificate that contains its public key and identity information, and a private key that corresponds to its public key. The private key is kept secret and never shared with anyone, while the public key is shared and used to verify the identity and signature of the certificate holder. The basic steps of PKI-based mutual authentication are as follows:

Party A sends its certificate to Party B.

Party B verifies Party A's certificate by checking its validity, signature, and trust chain. If the certificate is valid and trusted, Party B extracts Party A's public key from the certificate.

Party B generates a random challenge (such as a nonce or a timestamp) and encrypts it with Party A's public key. Party B sends the encrypted challenge to Party A.

Party A decrypts the challenge with its private key and sends it back to Party B.

Party B compares the received challenge with the original one. If they match, Party B confirms that Party A is the legitimate owner of the certificate and has possession of the private key.

The same steps are repeated in reverse, with Party A verifying Party B's certificate and sending a challenge encrypted with Party B's public key.

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