ExamGecko
Home Home / ISTQB / CTFL4

ISTQB CTFL4 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 16

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











Decision table testing is being performed on tran-sactions in a bank's ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

SEE ATTACHMENT 1

Given the following additional test cases:

SEE ATTACHMENT 2

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

A.
DT1, DT4
A.
DT1, DT4
Answers
B.
DT3, DT4
B.
DT3, DT4
Answers
C.
DT2, DT3
C.
DT2, DT3
Answers
D.
DT1.DT2
D.
DT1.DT2
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Decision table testing is used to analyze combinations of inputs to determine the appropriate outputs, often based on specific rules or conditions.

For the problem statement:

Rule 1: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = True)

Outcome: Transaction = Approved

Rule 4: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = False)

Outcome: Transaction = Declined

The additional test cases are:

DT1: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Insufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = True)

Outcome: Transaction = Declined

DT2: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = False, Correct PIN = True)

Outcome: Transaction = Approved

DT3: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Insufficient, Fast Cash = True, Correct PIN = False)

Outcome: Transaction = Declined

DT4: (Withdrawal = Allowed, Balance = Sufficient, Fast Cash = False, Correct PIN = False)

Outcome: Transaction = Declined

From the given test cases, DT2 covers the scenario where Fast Cash is False, which is not covered in the initial cases. DT3 covers the case where Balance is Insufficient and PIN is incorrect.

Combining Rules 1 and 4 with DT2 and DT3 covers all the scenarios.

Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0

10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0

Given the following state model of sales order software:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

A.
IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
A.
IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
Answers
B.
IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
B.
IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION
Answers
C.
PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
C.
PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED
Answers
D.
PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
D.
PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

State transition testing is a black-box testing technique where test cases are designed to cover states and transitions of a state machine.

Given the state model with the following transitions:

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

SHIPPED -> INVOICED

INVOICED -> CANCELLED

CANCELLED -> PLACED

To cover all transitions at least once, we need to create a sequence that covers all six transitions.

Option A: IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED - Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.

Option B: IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION - Covers all transitions.

Option C: PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED (ISTQB not-for-profit association) (Udemy)sses INVOICED -> CANCELLED transition.

Option D: PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED - Misses SHIPPED -> INVOICED and INVOICED -> CANCELLED transitions.

Given these, Option B covers all the transitions6source9source.

Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0

10 Sample Exams ISTQB Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

A.
Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization
A.
Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization
Answers
B.
Promote and advocate the test team within the organization
B.
Promote and advocate the test team within the organization
Answers
C.
Create the detailed test execution schedule
C.
Create the detailed test execution schedule
Answers
D.
Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress
D.
Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Testers are typically involved in creating detailed test execution schedules, among other tasks such as designing tests, executing tests, and logging defects. Creating a test strategy and test policy, promoting and advocating the test team, and introducing metrics are typically responsibilities of test managers or senior roles.

In the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, the responsibilities of testers include creating test cases, setting up test (ISTQB not-for-profit association)nts, executing tests, and reporting defects, which align with creating detailed test execution schedules6source.

Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0

ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2. The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3. The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4. The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5. The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6. The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

A.
Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4
A.
Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4
Answers
B.
Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6
B.
Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6
Answers
C.
Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6
C.
Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6
Answers
D.
Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3
D.
Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Entry and exit criteria are used to determine when to start and stop testing, respectively.

Entry Criteria:

These are conditions that should be met before testing begins.

Examples:

2. The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

4. The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5. The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

Exit Criteria:

These are conditions that should be met before testing concludes.

Examples:

1. A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

3. The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

6. The testing budge (ISTQB not-for-profit association) spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, these criteria help in effectively managing the testing process6source.

Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0

ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

SEE ATTACHMENT

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

A.
TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5
A.
TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5
Answers
B.
TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5
B.
TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5
Answers
C.
TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6
C.
TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6
Answers
D.
TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6
D.
TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When scheduling test cases, priorities and dependencies must be considered. The best execution order will respect both the logical dependencies and the priorities assigned to each test case.

Given the options, the correct order considering the priorities and dependencies is:

TC1 (Priority 1)

**TC (ISTQB not-for-profit association)ity 2, dependent on TC1)

TC2 (Priority 3, dependent on TC1)

TC4 (Priority 4)

TC5 (Priority 5)

TC6 (Priority 6, dependent on TC4)

According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, understanding dependencies and scheduling tests accordingly is crucial for effective test execution6source.

Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0

ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

A.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach
A.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach
Answers
B.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach
B.
The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach
Answers
C.
Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach
C.
Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach
Answers
D.
Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach
D.
Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

There are two main approaches to test estimation:

Expert-based approach:

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of this approach.

Involves consulting expert (ISTQB not-for-profit association)ate testing efforts.

This technique gathers estimates from multiple experts, discusses their differences, and achieves consensus.

Metrics-based approach:

Relies on historical data and metrics to predict future testing efforts.

According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, the expert-based approach relies on experts' experience and knowledge, which aligns with the Wideband Delphi technique6source.

Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0

ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

A.
The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget
A.
The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget
Answers
B.
The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends
B.
The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends
Answers
C.
The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget
C.
The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget
Answers
D.
The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends
D.
The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

For executive-level employees, a test summary report should be concise and focus on high-level information. It typically includes a summary of defects categorized by priority or budget. Executives are generally interested in the overall status and the impact on critical business objectives rather than detailed technical information. The report should provide an overview of the most important aspects of testing, such as key issues, test progress, and any risks or concerns that could affect project outcomes.

Reference:

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 5.3.1.

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

A.
Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project
A.
Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project
Answers
B.
Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project
B.
Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project
Answers
C.
Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks
C.
Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks
Answers
D.
Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event
D.
Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Risk level is determined by the combination of two factors: the likelihood of an event occurring and the impact or harm that could result from that event. This approach allows risks to be prioritized based on their potential effect on the project or system. The likelihood represents the probability of the risk event occurring, while the impact represents the severity of the consequences if the event does happen. This concept is fundamental in risk-based testing and helps guide decision-making during the testing process.

Reference:

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 1.4.1.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

A.
A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations
A.
A computation is not always performed correctly in some situations
Answers
B.
A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements
B.
A system architecture may not support some non-functional requirements
Answers
C.
Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work
C.
Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work
Answers
D.
Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user
D.
Specific modules do not adequately meet their intended functions according to the user
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A project risk relates to potential issues that could affect the overall success of the project. Among the options provided, the risk that 'Team members' skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work' is clearly a project risk because it pertains to the potential failure of the project due to inadequate skillsets among the team. This risk affects the entire project's ability to meet its objectives.

Reference:

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 1.4.2.

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information they are included in a typical defect report:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

A.
1, 2, 5
A.
1, 2, 5
Answers
B.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answers
C.
1, 2, 4
C.
1, 2, 4
Answers
D.
3, 4
D.
3, 4
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

When developers are trying to identify and remove a defect, they need clear information on what went wrong and what was expected. The items that will be most useful to developers in this context are the expected results (item 1), the actual results (item 2), and a description of the defect including steps to reproduce, screenshots, and database dumps (item 5). This information helps developers understand the nature of the defect and provides the necessary details to reproduce and diagnose the issue effectively.

Reference:

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 5.5.1.

Total 288 questions
Go to page: of 29