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A technician is setting up a projector for a videoconferencing system. The laptop that the technician is using is set to the correct resolution. The projector is receiving a signal, but the image is distorted. Which of the following most likely explains the issue?

A.
The projector's aspect ratio is set incorrectly.
A.
The projector's aspect ratio is set incorrectly.
Answers
B.
The laptop's video card has failed.
B.
The laptop's video card has failed.
Answers
C.
The projector's bulb is burned out.
C.
The projector's bulb is burned out.
Answers
D.
The display brightness needs to be adjusted.
D.
The display brightness needs to be adjusted.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely explanation for the distorted image on the projector is that the projector's aspect ratio is set incorrectly. The aspect ratio is the ratio of the width to the height of the image, and it affects how the image is displayed on the screen. If the aspect ratio of the projector does not match the aspect ratio of the laptop, the image may appear stretched, squashed, cropped, or letterboxed.

To fix the distorted image, the technician should follow these steps:

Check the aspect ratio of the laptop and the projector. The aspect ratio of the laptop can be found in the display settings of the operating system, such as Windows or Mac OS. The aspect ratio of the projector can be found in the user manual or the on-screen menu of the projector. Common aspect ratios are 4:3, 16:9, and 16:10.

Adjust the aspect ratio of the projector to match the aspect ratio of the laptop. The technician can use the remote control or the buttons on the projector to access the on-screen menu and select the appropriate aspect ratio option. Some projectors may have a dedicated aspect ratio button on the remote control or the projector itself.

Verify that the image is displayed correctly on the screen. The technician can use the zoom, focus, or keystone buttons on the projector or the remote control to fine-tune the image quality and alignment.

How to Fix Projector Display Problems - Projectors Tab1

Correcting Distorted Projector Images - Projector Repair World Hyd2

How to Adjust the Aspect Ratio on a Projector - Lifewire

A user's mobile device can back up classified files to an external hard drive at work but cannot save pictures to an external drive at home. Which of the following is most likely the issue?

A.
The pictures do not have a classification flag set.
A.
The pictures do not have a classification flag set.
Answers
B.
The drive permissions are insufficient.
B.
The drive permissions are insufficient.
Answers
C.
Peripherals are managed via MDM.
C.
Peripherals are managed via MDM.
Answers
D.
Drivers are incorrectly installed.
D.
Drivers are incorrectly installed.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The most likely issue that prevents the user's mobile device from saving pictures to an external drive at home is that the peripherals are managed via MDM (mobile device management). MDM is a software solution that allows an organization to remotely control, secure, and enforce policies on mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops. MDM can also restrict the access and functionality of the peripherals, such as external drives, cameras, microphones, or printers, that are connected to the mobile devices.

One of the possible reasons why the user's mobile device can back up classified files to an external hard drive at work but not save pictures to an external drive at home is that the MDM policy allows only authorized peripherals to be used with the mobile device. For example, the MDM policy may require the external drive to have a certain encryption level, a specific serial number, or a valid certificate to be recognized by the mobile device. The external drive at work may meet these criteria, while the external drive at home may not. Therefore, the mobile device can back up the classified files to the external drive at work, but it cannot save the pictures to the external drive at home.

To resolve this issue, the user may need to contact the IT administrator or the MDM provider and request permission to use the external drive at home. Alternatively, the user may need to use a different method to transfer the pictures from the mobile device to the external drive, such as using a cloud service, a wireless network, or a USB cable.

What is Mobile Device Management (MDM)?1

How to Manage Mobile Devices With MDM2

How to Connect an External Hard Drive to Your Phone3

A PC's boot drive is showing signs of imminent failure, and a technician needs to recover the data. Which of the following should the technician do first?

A.
Clone the drive to another one.
A.
Clone the drive to another one.
Answers
B.
Access the Device Manager.
B.
Access the Device Manager.
Answers
C.
Download the drive manufacturer's diagnostic tool.
C.
Download the drive manufacturer's diagnostic tool.
Answers
D.
Uninstall the drive in the Device Manager. Replace the drive with a new one.
D.
Uninstall the drive in the Device Manager. Replace the drive with a new one.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The first step to recover data from a failing drive is to clone the drive to another one, which means creating an exact copy of the drive's contents, including the operating system, applications, files, and settings, to a new drive. Cloning the drive can preserve the data and prevent further damage or data loss from the failing drive.Cloning the drive can also allow the technician to boot from the new drive and access the data normally, without needing to reinstall the operating system or the applications12.

The other options are not as effective or relevant as cloning the drive. Accessing the Device Manager may not help with data recovery, as it is a tool that displays and manages the hardware devices and drivers on a PC.The Device Manager may show the status of the failing drive, but it cannot copy or restore the data from it3. Downloading the drive manufacturer's diagnostic tool may help with identifying and repairing some errors or issues with the drive, but it may not be able to recover the data if the drive is physically damaged or corrupted.The diagnostic tool may also overwrite or erase some data during the repair process, which can make the data recovery more difficult or impossible4. Uninstalling the drive in the Device Manager may not help with data recovery, as it removes the drive from the system and its driver from the operating system.Uninstalling the drive may make the drive inaccessible or unrecognized by the PC, which can prevent the data recovery5. Replacing the drive with a new one may not help with data recovery, as it does not transfer the data from the old drive to the new one. Replacing the drive may also require reinstalling the operating system and the applications, which can take time and effort. Replacing the drive may also discard the old drive, which may still contain some recoverable data.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 140

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.5: Disk Management, Page 107

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Operating Systems, Section 2.4: Device Manager, Page 84

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.6: Troubleshooting Storage Devices, Page 111

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Operating Systems, Section 2.4: Device Manager, Page 85

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.6: Troubleshooting Storage Devices, Page 112

Which of the following DNS records is used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name?

A.
A
A.
A
Answers
B.
MX
B.
MX
Answers
C.
NS
C.
NS
Answers
D.
SPF
D.
SPF
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A DNS record is a data entry in a DNS server that maps a domain name to a specific value, such as an IP address, a mail server, a name server, or a text string.There are different types of DNS records for different purposes, and each type has a specific format and syntax12.

The A record, also known as the address record, is the most common type of DNS record, and it is used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name. The A record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address, which is a 32-bit numerical value that identifies a device on the internet.For example, the A record for www.google.com is 172.217.14.20612.

The other options are not correct because they are not used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name. The MX record, also known as the mail exchange record, is used to specify the mail servers that handle the email for a domain name. The MX record maps a domain name to a priority value and a host name of a mail server.For example, the MX record for gmail.com is 10 alt1.gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com12.

The NS record, also known as the name server record, is used to delegate a domain name to a set of authoritative name servers. The NS record maps a domain name to a host name of a name server that can provide authoritative answers for the domain name and its subdomains.For example, the NS record for example.com is ns1.example.com12.

The SPF record, also known as the sender policy framework record, is used to prevent email spoofing and spamming by validating the sender's identity. The SPF record maps a domain name to a text string that specifies the authorized mail servers and IP addresses that can send email on behalf of the domain name.For example, the SPF record for microsoft.com is v=spf1 include:spf.protection.outlook.com -all12.

DNS Configuration -- CompTIA A+ 220-1101 -- 2.6

CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 (220-1101) [Video] - Packt Subscription, Section 2: Networking, Video 2.6: DNS Configuration

CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 (220-1101) - GitHub, Slide Handout PDFs 1101, Chapter 2: Networking, Slide 2.6: DNS Configuration

Which of the following models is an example of metered utilization?

A.
Reserved instance
A.
Reserved instance
Answers
B.
Pay-as-you-go
B.
Pay-as-you-go
Answers
C.
Subscription-based
C.
Subscription-based
Answers
D.
Multitenant
D.
Multitenant
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Metered utilization is a pricing model for cloud computing services, where the customer pays only for the amount of resources that are consumed, such as CPU time, memory, storage, bandwidth, etc. The customer is billed based on the actual usage of the resources, rather than a fixed or upfront fee.Metered utilization is also known as usage-based pricing or pay-per-use12.

Pay-as-you-go is an example of metered utilization, where the customer pays for the cloud resources on demand, without any long-term commitment or contract. The customer can scale up or down the resources as needed, and only pay for what is used.Pay-as-you-go is a flexible and cost-effective option for customers who have unpredictable or variable workloads, or who want to try out new services or features12.

The other options are not examples of metered utilization. Reserved instance is a pricing model where the customer pays a discounted rate for a fixed amount of cloud resources for a specified period of time, such as one or three years. The customer can reserve the resources in advance, and benefit from lower costs and guaranteed availability.Reserved instance is suitable for customers who have predictable or steady workloads, or who want to optimize their budget12.

Subscription-based is a pricing model where the customer pays a fixed fee for a set of cloud services or features for a certain period of time, such as monthly or annually. The customer can access the services or features as much as needed, without worrying about the usage or consumption of the resources.Subscription-based is suitable for customers who want to have a consistent and predictable cost, or who want to access premium or exclusive services or features12.

Multitenant is not a pricing model, but a cloud architecture where multiple customers share the same physical or virtual resources, such as servers, databases, applications, etc. The resources are isolated and secured for each customer, and the customers can benefit from lower costs, higher scalability, and faster updates.Multitenant is a common characteristic of public cloud services, where the cloud provider manages and maintains the resources for the customers12.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Cloud Computing and Virtualization, Section 4.2: Cloud Computing Concepts, Page 261

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 6: Cloud Computing and Virtualization, Section 6.2: Cloud Computing Concepts, Page 241

A customer recently installed a new graphics card, but the card's HDMI port is not getting a signal when connected to the monitor. When the monitor is connected to the original HDMI port, located next to the USB ports, everything works as expected. Which of the following should the technician do next?

A.
Change the input source selection on the monitor.
A.
Change the input source selection on the monitor.
Answers
B.
Check to see whether the UEFI setting for PCle graphics is enabled.
B.
Check to see whether the UEFI setting for PCle graphics is enabled.
Answers
C.
Install a higher wattage power supply.
C.
Install a higher wattage power supply.
Answers
D.
Test the new graphics card with an HDMI to DVI adapter.
D.
Test the new graphics card with an HDMI to DVI adapter.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Given the following output from a cable tester:

===================

= Open

=12345678=

=12 45 78=

===================

Which of the following tools should the technician use to resolve this issue? (Select two).

A.
Loopback plug
A.
Loopback plug
Answers
B.
Network tap
B.
Network tap
Answers
C.
Toner probe
C.
Toner probe
Answers
D.
Crimper
D.
Crimper
Answers
E.
Punchdown tool
E.
Punchdown tool
Answers
F.
Wi-Fi analyzer
F.
Wi-Fi analyzer
Answers
Suggested answer: D, E

Explanation:

The output from the cable tester indicates that there is an open fault in the cable, which means that one or more of the wires in the cable are not connected properly or are broken. The open fault affects the wires 3, 4, and 6, which are used for transmitting and receiving data in Ethernet networks.The open fault can cause network connectivity issues, such as no link, slow speed, or packet loss12.

To resolve this issue, the technician should use a crimper and a punchdown tool, which are tools that are used to attach connectors to cables or wires to patch panels. A crimper is a tool that squeezes or crimps a connector, such as an RJ-45, to the end of a cable, ensuring that the wires are securely inserted into the pins of the connector. A punchdown tool is a tool that pushes or punches a wire into a slot on a patch panel, creating a connection between the wire and the panel.Both tools can be used to fix or replace the faulty wires or connectors that cause the open fault12.

The other options are not as effective or relevant as a crimper and a punchdown tool. A loopback plug is a tool that is used to test the functionality of a network port or device, by sending and receiving signals from the same port or device.A loopback plug can help diagnose network problems, such as faulty ports or devices, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A network tap is a tool that is used to monitor or capture network traffic, by creating a copy of the data that passes through a network link.A network tap can help analyze network performance, security, or troubleshooting, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A toner probe is a tool that is used to trace or identify a cable or wire, by sending and detecting an audible tone along the cable or wire.A toner probe can help locate or label network cables or wires, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool that is used to scan or measure wireless networks, by displaying information such as signal strength, channel, encryption, etc.A Wi-Fi analyzer can help optimize or troubleshoot wireless networks, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12.

Network Tools -- CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - Professor Messer IT ...

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network Tools, Page 249

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network Tools, Page 213

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Pearson uCertify Course and Labs and Textbook Bundle, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network Tools, Page 250

A technician is troubleshooting a workgroup printer that has stopped printing after several days of heavy use. The technician runs the diagnostic tool in the printer's administrator menu. Which of the following issues is the technician most likely to encounter?

A.
Corrupt job in print spooler
A.
Corrupt job in print spooler
Answers
B.
Insufficient space in the printer
B.
Insufficient space in the printer
Answers
C.
Network connectivity issues
C.
Network connectivity issues
Answers
D.
Improperly installed drivers
D.
Improperly installed drivers
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely issue that the technician will encounter is

A) Corrupt job in print spooler.

A corrupt job in the print spooler is a common problem that can cause a printer to stop printing or print slowly. The print spooler is a service that manages the print queue, which is a list of documents that are waiting to be printed. Sometimes, a document in the print queue can become corrupted or incompatible with the printer, and prevent other documents from being printed. This can happen due to various reasons, such as power outage, network interruption, driver mismatch, virus infection, etc12.

To troubleshoot and resolve this issue, the technician can use the diagnostic tool in the printer's administrator menu, which is a feature that allows the technician to access and configure various settings and options of the printer. The diagnostic tool can help the technician identify and delete the corrupt job in the print spooler, and restart the print service. The technician can also use the diagnostic tool to check the printer's status, error messages, firmware updates, network settings, and other information that can help with the troubleshooting process34.

The other options are less likely to be encountered by the technician, as they are not related to the printer's heavy use or the diagnostic tool. Insufficient space in the printer is an issue that can occur when the printer's memory or storage is full, and it can cause the printer to print slowly or incompletely. However, this issue can be easily resolved by clearing the printer's memory or storage, or adding more memory or storage to the printer12. Network connectivity issues are problems that can affect the communication between the printer and the network, and they can cause the printer to be offline or unreachable. However, these issues can be resolved by checking and fixing the physical or wireless connection, the network configuration, the firewall settings, and the printer's IP address12. Improperly installed drivers are issues that can affect the compatibility and functionality of the printer, and they can cause the printer to print incorrectly or not at all. However, these issues can be resolved by updating, reinstalling, or rolling back the printer's drivers, or by using the correct drivers for the printer's model and operating system12.

A user called the help desk to request assistance with selecting appropriate storage to back up a large collection of DVDs and photos in the most economical way. Which of the following should the help desk recommend?

A.
5,400rpm HDD
A.
5,400rpm HDD
Answers
B.
M.2 NVMe SSD
B.
M.2 NVMe SSD
Answers
C.
SAS RAID array
C.
SAS RAID array
Answers
D.
Optical media
D.
Optical media
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Optical media, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs, are a suitable choice for backing up a large collection of DVDs and photos in the most economical way. Optical media are inexpensive, widely available, and have a long shelf life. They can store large amounts of data, up to 50GB on a dual-layer Blu-ray disc, and can be easily labeled and organized. Optical media are also less prone to mechanical failure, data corruption, or accidental deletion than hard disk drives (HDDs) or solid state drives (SSDs).

The other options are not as economical or suitable for this purpose. A 5,400rpm HDD is a slow and noisy type of HDD that has moving parts that can wear out or break. A HDD also consumes more power and generates more heat than an SSD. A M.2 NVMe SSD is a fast and compact type of SSD that uses a PCIe interface to transfer data. However, an SSD is more expensive than an HDD or optical media, and has a limited number of write cycles before it degrades. A SAS RAID array is a complex and costly system that uses multiple HDDs or SSDs connected by a Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interface to provide redundancy, performance, or both. A RAID array requires a RAID controller, a compatible motherboard, and a dedicated power supply.

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The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2

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A technician receives a phone call from a traveling sales representative indicating that the maps application on a phone is not working. The representative runs a speed test on the phone and gets ~10Mbps in both directions. Which of the following settings should the technician check first to troubleshoot the issue?

A.
Airplane mode
A.
Airplane mode
Answers
B.
PRL
B.
PRL
Answers
C.
GPS
C.
GPS
Answers
D.
LTE
D.
LTE
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

GPS (Global Positioning System) is a feature that allows a phone to determine its location by receiving signals from satellites. A maps application relies on GPS to provide accurate directions and navigation. If GPS is turned off or not working properly, the maps application may not function as expected.

The other options are not relevant to the issue. Airplane mode is a setting that disables all wireless communication on a phone, including cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and GPS. However, since the representative runs a speed test and gets ~10Mbps in both directions, it means that airplane mode is not enabled. PRL (Preferred Roaming List) is a database that contains information about the cellular towers and networks that a phone can connect to. Updating the PRL can improve the phone's signal strength and coverage, but it does not affect the maps application. LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a standard for high-speed wireless communication on mobile devices. It is related to the cellular data speed and quality, but not to the maps application.

To troubleshoot the issue, the technician should check the GPS settings on the phone and make sure that it is turned on and has a clear view of the sky. The technician should also verify that the maps application has permission to access the GPS location. If the problem persists, the technician may suggest resetting the network settings, updating the phone's software, or contacting the maps application's support team.

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1

The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2

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