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Cisco 350-401 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 64

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Question 631

(0)

DRAG DROP Drag the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Question 632

(0)

DRAG DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right

Question 633

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Which of the following are examples of Type 2 hypervisors? (Choose three.)

Question 634

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What is an advantage of utilizing data models in a multivendor environment?

Question 635

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Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

Question 636

(0)

A switch is attached to router R1 on its gig 0/0 interface. Fort security reasons, you want to prevent R1 from sending OSPF hellos to the switch. Which command should be enabled to accomplish this?

Question 637

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Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

Question 638

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Which device, in a LISP routing architecture, receives and de-encapsulates LISP traffic for endpoints within a LISP-capable site?

Question 639

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By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

Question 640

(0)

Refer to the exhibit. The server in DC2 is expecting traffic from the database in DC1 to use the source network of 10.50.250.0/24. The server sends the initial request. The inside global IP is co

Related questions

What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.)

Which option works with a DHCP server to return at least one WLAN management interface IP address during the discovery phase and is dependent upon the VCI of the AP?

An engineer must update the local web authentication details on a Cisco 5520 WLC. The engineer has one active SSID configured for web authentication and plans to update the virtual interface with a nonroutable IP address. Which command must the engineer apply?

An engineer is troubleshooting the Ap join process using DNS. Which FQDN must be resolvable on the network for the access points to successfully register to the WLC?

Which port is required to allow APs to join a WLC when directed broadcasts are used on a Cisco iOS switch?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

Refer to the Exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. Which action must be performed to allow RESTCONF access to the device?

An engineer must configure a multicast UDP jitter operation. Which configuration should be applied? A) B) C) D)

Reter to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Client connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however, Client roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection. Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue?

Question 631

DRAG DROP

Drag the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

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Question 632

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right

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Question 633

Which of the following are examples of Type 2 hypervisors? (Choose three.)

VMware ESXi

Oracle VirtualBox

Oracle Solaris Zones

Microsoft Hyper-V

Microsoft Virtual PC

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Question 634

What is an advantage of utilizing data models in a multivendor environment?

lowering CPU load incurred to managed devices

improving communication security with binary encoded protocols

facilitating a unified approach to configuration and management

removing the distinction between configuration and runtime state data

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Question 635

Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

Policing

Marking

Queueing

Classification

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Question 636

A switch is attached to router R1 on its gig 0/0 interface. Fort security reasons, you want to prevent R1 from sending OSPF hellos to the switch. Which command should be enabled to accomplish this?

R1(config-router)#ip ospf hello disable

R1(config-router)#ip ospf hello-interval 0

R1(config)#passive-interface Gig 0/0

R1(config-router)#passive-interface Gig 0/0

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Question 637

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

transmit power

noise floor

EIRP

antenna gain

RSSI

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Question 638

Which device, in a LISP routing architecture, receives and de-encapsulates LISP traffic for endpoints within a LISP-capable site?

ETR

OMS

ITR

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Question 639

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 41 use?

0c:5e:ac:07:0c:29

00:05:0c:07:ac:41

004:41:73:18:84:29

00:00:0c:07:ac:29

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The server in DC2 is expecting traffic from the database in DC1 to use the source network of 10.50.250.0/24. The server sends the initial request. The inside global IP is configured for 10.50.250.1. What is the result of this configuration?

Only the server can initiate communication.

The server and the database cannot communicate.

The server and the database can initiate communication.

Only the database can initiate communication

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