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A Windows workstation that was recently updated with approved system patches shut down instead of restarting. Upon reboot, the technician notices an alert stating the workstation has malware in the root OS folder. The technician promptly performs a System Restore and reboots the workstation, but the malware is still detected. Which of the following BEST describes why the system still has malware?

A.
A system patch disabled the antivirus protection and host firewall.
A.
A system patch disabled the antivirus protection and host firewall.
Answers
B.
The system updates did not include the latest anti-malware definitions.
B.
The system updates did not include the latest anti-malware definitions.
Answers
C.
The system restore process was compromised by the malware.
C.
The system restore process was compromised by the malware.
Answers
D.
The malware was installed before the system restore point was created.
D.
The malware was installed before the system restore point was created.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The best explanation for why the system still has malware after performing a System Restore is that the malware was installed before the system restore point was created. A system restore point is a snapshot of the system settings and configuration at a certain point in time. A System Restore is a feature that allows users to restore their system to a previous state in case of problems or errors. However, a System Restore does not affect personal files or folders, and it may not remove malware that was already present on the system before the restore point was created. A system patch disabling the antivirus protection and host firewall may increase the risk of malware infection, but it does not explain why the malware persists after a System Restore. The system updates not including the latest anti-malware definitions may reduce the effectiveness of malware detection and removal, but it does not explain why the malware persists after a System Restore. The system restore process being compromised by the malware may prevent a successful System Restore, but it does not explain why the malware persists after a System Restore. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.3

Which of the following is the default GUI and file manager in macOS?

A.
Disk Utility
A.
Disk Utility
Answers
B.
Finder
B.
Finder
Answers
C.
Dock
C.
Dock
Answers
D.
FileVault
D.
FileVault
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Finder is the default GUI and file manager in macOS. Finder is an application that allows users to access and manage files and folders on their Mac computers. Finder also provides features such as Quick Look, Spotlight, AirDrop and iCloud Drive. Finder uses a graphical user interface that consists of icons, menus, toolbars and windows to display and interact with files and folders. Disk Utility is a utility that allows users to view and manage disk drives and partitions on their Mac computers. Disk Utility is not a GUI or a file manager but a disk management tool. Dock is a feature that allows users to access and launch applications on their Mac computers. Dock is not a GUI or a file manager but an application launcher. FileVault is a feature that allows users to encrypt and protect their data on their Mac computers. FileVault is not a GUI or a file manager but an encryption tool. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.1

A technician needs to add an individual as a local administrator on a Windows home PC. Which of the following utilities would the technician MOST likely use?

A.
Settings > Personalization
A.
Settings > Personalization
Answers
B.
Control Panel > Credential Manager
B.
Control Panel > Credential Manager
Answers
C.
Settings > Accounts > Family and Other Users
C.
Settings > Accounts > Family and Other Users
Answers
D.
Control Panel > Network and Sharing Center
D.
Control Panel > Network and Sharing Center
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The technician would most likely use Settings > Accounts > Family and Other Users to add an individual as a local administrator on a Windows home PC. Settings > Accounts > Family and Other Users allows users to add and manage other user accounts on their Windows PC. The technician can add an individual as a local administrator by selecting Add someone else to this PC under Other users and following the steps to create a new user account with administrator privileges. Settings > Personalization allows users to customize the appearance and behavior of their desktop, such as themes, colors, backgrounds, lock screen and screensaver. Settings > Personalization is not related to adding an individual as a local administrator on a Windows home PC but to configuring desktop settings and preferences. Control Panel > Credential Manager allows users to view and manage their web credentials and Windows credentials stored on their Windows PC. Control Panel > Credential Manager is not related to adding

Which of the following features allows a technician to configure policies in a Windows 10 Professional desktop?

A.
gpedit
A.
gpedit
Answers
B.
gpmc
B.
gpmc
Answers
C.
gpresult
C.
gpresult
Answers
D.
gpupdate
D.
gpupdate
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The feature that allows a technician to configure policies in a Windows 10 Professional desktop is gpedit. Gpedit is a command that opens the Local Group Policy Editor, which is a utility that allows users to view and modify local group policies on their Windows PC. Local group policies are a set of rules and settings that control the behavior and configuration of the system and its users. Local group policies can be used to configure policies such as security, network, software installation and user rights. Gpmc is a command that opens the Group Policy Management Console, which is a utility that allows users to view and modify domain-based group policies on a Windows Server. Domain-based group policies are a set of rules and settings that control the behavior and configuration of the computers and users in a domain. Domain-based group policies are not available on a Windows 10 Professional desktop. Gpresult is a command that displays the result of applying group policies on a Windows PC. Gpresult can be used to troubleshoot or verify group policy settings but not to configure them. Gpupdate is a command that updates or refreshes the group policy settings on a Windows PC. Gpupdate can be used to apply new or changed group policy settings but not to configure them. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.6

Which of the following defines the extent of a change?

A.
Scope
A.
Scope
Answers
B.
Purpose
B.
Purpose
Answers
C.
Analysis
C.
Analysis
Answers
D.
Impact
D.
Impact
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The term that defines the extent of a change is scope. Scope is a measure of the size, scale and boundaries of a project or an activity. Scope defines what is included and excluded in the project or activity, such as goals, requirements, deliverables, tasks and resources. Scope helps determine the feasibility, duration and cost of the project or activity. Scope also helps manage the expectations and needs of the stakeholders involved in the project or activity. Purpose is the reason or objective for doing a project or an activity. Purpose defines why the project or activity is important or necessary, such as solving a problem, meeting a need or achieving a goal. Purpose helps provide direction, motivation and justification for the project or activity. Analysis is the process of examining, evaluating and interpreting data or information related to a project or an activity. Analysis helps identify, understand and prioritize issues, risks, opportunities and solutions for the project or activity. Impact is the effect or outcome of a project or an activity on something or someone else. Impact defines how the project or activity affects or influences other factors, such as performance, quality, satisfaction or value. Impact helps measure the success and effectiveness of the project or activity.

Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 5.2

Which of the following filesystem formats would be the BEST choice to ensure read and write compatibility of USB flash drives across several generations of Microsoft operating systems?

A.
APFS
A.
APFS
Answers
B.
ext4
B.
ext4
Answers
C.
CDFS
C.
CDFS
Answers
D.
FAT32
D.
FAT32
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The best filesystem format to ensure read and write compatibility of USB flash drives across several generations of Microsoft operating systems is FAT32. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32-bit and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using 32-bit clusters. FAT32 is compatible with most Microsoft operating systems since Windows 95 OSR2, as well as other operating systems such as Linux and Mac OS X. FAT32 can support storage devices up to 2TB in size and files up to 4GB in size. APFS stands for Apple File System and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using encryption, snapshots and cloning features. APFS is compatible with Mac OS X 10.13 High Sierra and later versions but not with Microsoft operating systems natively. Ext4 stands for Fourth Extended File System and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using journaling, extents and delayed allocation features. Ext4 is compatible with Linux operating systems but not with Microsoft operating systems natively.

A technician is troubleshooting a mobile device that was dropped. The technician finds that the screen (ails to rotate, even though the settings are correctly applied. Which of the following pieces of hardware should the technician replace to resolve the issue?

A.
LCD
A.
LCD
Answers
B.
Battery
B.
Battery
Answers
C.
Accelerometer
C.
Accelerometer
Answers
D.
Digitizer
D.
Digitizer
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The piece of hardware that the technician should replace to resolve the issue of the screen failing to rotate on a mobile device that was dropped is the accelerometer. The accelerometer is a sensor that detects the orientation and movement of the mobile device by measuring the acceleration forces acting on it. The accelerometer allows the screen to rotate automatically according to the position and angle of the device. If the accelerometer is damaged or malfunctioning, the screen may not rotate properly or at all, even if the settings are correctly applied. LCD stands for Liquid Crystal Display and is a type of display that uses liquid crystals and backlight to produce images on the screen. LCD is not related to the screen rotation feature but to the quality and brightness of the display. Battery is a component that provides power to the mobile device by storing and releasing electrical energy. Battery is not related to the screen rotation feature but to the battery life and performance of the device. Digitizer is a component that converts touch inputs into digital signals that can be processed by the mobile device. Digitizer is not related to the screen rotation feature but to the touch sensitivity and accuracy of the display. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.5

A technician downloads a validated security tool and notes the vendor hash of a58e87a2. When the download is complete, the technician again validates the hash, but the value returns as 2a876a7d3. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A.
Private-browsing mode
A.
Private-browsing mode
Answers
B.
Invalid certificate
B.
Invalid certificate
Answers
C.
Modified file
C.
Modified file
Answers
D.
Browser cache
D.
Browser cache
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the issue of having different hash values for a downloaded security tool is a modified file. A hash value is a unique and fixed-length string that is generated from an algorithm that processes data or files. A hash value can be used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data or files by comparing it with a known or expected value. If the hash values do not match, it means that the data or file has been altered or corrupted in some way. A modified file may result from intentional or unintentional changes, such as editing, encryption, compression or malware infection. Private-browsing mode is a feature that allows users to browse the web without storing any browsing history, cookies or cache on their browser. Private-browsing mode does not affect the hash value of a downloaded file but only how the browser handles user data. Invalid certificate is an error that occurs when a website or a server does not have a valid or trusted digital certificate that proves its identity and secures its communication. Invalid certificate does not affect the hash value of a downloaded file but only how the browser verifies the website or server’s credibility. Browser cache is a temporary storage that stores copies of web pages, images and other content that users have visited on their browser.

An implementation specialist is replacing a legacy system at a vendor site that has only one wireless network available. When the specialist connects to Wi-Fi. the specialist realizes the insecure network has open authentication. The technician needs to secure the vendor's sensitive dat a. Which of the following should the specialist do FIRST to protect the company's data?

A.
Manually configure an IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway.
A.
Manually configure an IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway.
Answers
B.
Connect to the vendor's network using a VPN.
B.
Connect to the vendor's network using a VPN.
Answers
C.
Change the network location to private.
C.
Change the network location to private.
Answers
D.
Configure MFA on the network.
D.
Configure MFA on the network.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The first thing that the specialist should do to protect the company’s data on an insecure network with open authentication is to connect to the vendor’s network using a VPN. A VPN stands for Virtual Private Network and is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public or untrusted network. A VPN can protect the company’s data by preventing eavesdropping, interception or modification of the network traffic by unauthorized parties. A VPN can also provide access to the company’s internal network and resources remotely. Manually configuring an IP address, a subnet mask and a default gateway may not be necessary or possible if the vendor’s network uses DHCP to assign network configuration parameters automatically. Manually configuring an IP address, a subnet mask and a default gateway does not protect the company’s data from network attacks or threats. Changing the network location to private may not be advisable or effective if the vendor’s network is a public or untrusted network. Changing the network location to private does not protect the company’s data from network attacks or threats. Configuring MFA on the network may not be feasible or sufficient if the vendor’s network has open authentication and does not support or require MFA. Configuring MFA on the network does not protect the company’s data from network attacks or threats. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 3.3

A user contacts a technician about an issue with a laptop. The user states applications open without being launched and the browser redirects when trying to go to certain websites. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the user's issue?

A.
Keylogger
A.
Keylogger
Answers
B.
Cryptominers
B.
Cryptominers
Answers
C.
Virus
C.
Virus
Answers
D.
Malware
D.
Malware
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the user’s issue of applications opening without being launched and browser redirects when trying to go to certain websites is malware. Malware is a general term that refers to any software or code that is malicious or harmful to a computer or system. Malware can perform various unwanted or unauthorized actions on a computer or system, such as opening applications, redirecting browsers, displaying ads, stealing data, encrypting files or damaging hardware. Malware can infect a computer or system through various means, such as email attachments, web downloads, removable media or network connections. Keylogger is a type of malware that records and transmits the keystrokes made by a user on a keyboard. Keylogger can be used to steal personal or sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers or chat messages. Keylogger does not typically open applications or redirect browsers but only captures user inputs. Cryptominers are a type of malware that use the computing resources of a computer or system to mine cryptocurrency, such as Bitcoin or Ethereum. Cryptominers can degrade the performance and increase the power consumption of a computer or system. Cryptominers do not typically open applications or redirect browsers but only consume CPU or GPU cycles. Virus is a type of malware that infects and replicates itself on other files or programs on a computer or system.

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