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A user reports that a new, personally owned tablet will not connect to the corporate Wi-Fi network. The user is able to connect to the Wi-Fi network with other devices, and the tablet is running the latest software. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.
Incorrect encryption settings
A.
Incorrect encryption settings
Answers
B.
Blocked MAC address
B.
Blocked MAC address
Answers
C.
Outdated drivers
C.
Outdated drivers
Answers
D.
Disabled location services
D.
Disabled location services
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

When a user reports that a new, personally owned tablet will not connect to the corporate Wi-Fi network, but other devices can connect, and the tablet is running the latest software, the most likely cause of the issue is a blocked MAC address. Here's why:

MAC Filtering: Many corporate networks implement MAC address filtering as a security measure. This involves only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to the network. If the MAC address of the new tablet is not on the allowed list, it will be blocked from connecting.

Check Network Settings: To troubleshoot this, the network administrator can check the network's MAC filtering settings to see if the tablet's MAC address is blocked.

Add MAC Address: If the MAC address is blocked, adding the tablet's MAC address to the allowed list will resolve the issue.

Other options like incorrect encryption settings or outdated drivers are less likely because the user can connect with other devices and the tablet is running the latest software. Disabled location services do not affect Wi-Fi connectivity.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.6: Given a scenario configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

Corporate network security practices documentation.

A user's laptop is shutting down every time the laptop lid is closed, which is leading to frequent work interruptions. Which of the following should a help desk specialist do to remediate the issue?

A.
Configure the sleep settings.
A.
Configure the sleep settings.
Answers
B.
Disable hibernation.
B.
Disable hibernation.
Answers
C.
Edit the power plan.
C.
Edit the power plan.
Answers
D.
Turn on fast startup.
D.
Turn on fast startup.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When a user's laptop shuts down every time the lid is closed, it typically means that the power settings are configured to put the laptop into a shutdown state when the lid is closed. To remediate this issue:

Edit the power plan: This involves changing the settings for what happens when the laptop lid is closed.

Go to Control Panel > Hardware and Sound > Power Options.

Click on 'Choose what closing the lid does.'

Change the settings for 'When I close the lid' to either 'Sleep' or 'Do nothing' instead of 'Shut down.'

Configure the sleep settings: While similar to editing the power plan, this option specifically adjusts the sleep settings rather than the overall power plan settings.

Disable hibernation: This is a less direct solution but could be considered if the laptop was set to hibernate and then experiencing issues.

Turn on fast startup: This setting affects how quickly the computer starts up from a shutdown, but it does not directly address the issue of what happens when the lid is closed.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 1.5: Given a scenario, use the appropriate Microsoft Windows settings.

Windows power management documentation.

Which of the following will automatically map network drives based on Group Policy configuration?

A.
Log-in scripts
A.
Log-in scripts
Answers
B.
Access control lists
B.
Access control lists
Answers
C.
Organizational units
C.
Organizational units
Answers
D.
Folder redirection
D.
Folder redirection
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Network drives can be automatically mapped for users based on Group Policy configuration using log-in scripts. Here's how it works:

Log-in scripts: These are scripts executed when a user logs in to a domain. They can be configured through Group Policy in Active Directory to map network drives automatically. The scripts can use commands like net use to map drives.

Access control lists (ACLs): While ACLs control permissions for files and folders, they do not automatically map network drives.

Organizational units (OUs): OUs are used to organize users and computers in a directory structure but do not map drives.

Folder redirection: This redirects the path of a folder to a new location, typically on a network share, but it does not automatically map drives.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 1.6: Given a scenario configure Microsoft Windows networking features on a client/desktop.

Group Policy and login script documentation from Microsoft.

During a routine check, a systems administrator discovers that a user's PC is running slowly and CPU utilization is at 100%. Further investigation shows a large amount of resource usage. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the high resource usage?

A.
Firewall activities
A.
Firewall activities
Answers
B.
Botnet attack
B.
Botnet attack
Answers
C.
DDoS attack
C.
DDoS attack
Answers
D.
Keylogger attack
D.
Keylogger attack
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

When a system administrator discovers a user's PC running slowly with 100% CPU utilization, it often indicates that the system is being used for unauthorized purposes, such as being part of a botnet attack. Here's why:

Botnet attack: Botnets are networks of computers infected with malware and controlled by an attacker. These infected computers (bots) are often used to carry out tasks like sending spam or participating in Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. The high CPU utilization and resource usage indicate that the computer might be performing tasks dictated by the botnet controller.

Firewall activities: While firewall activities can use some resources, they generally do not cause sustained high CPU utilization.

DDoS attack: DDoS attacks target external systems by overwhelming them with traffic. A system participating in a DDoS might have high network usage, but the primary symptom on the user's PC would be high network activity, not necessarily CPU usage.

Keylogger attack: Keyloggers record keystrokes and generally do not cause high CPU utilization. They are more stealthy and have minimal resource footprints.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.4: Explain common social-engineering attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities.

Security and malware documentation.

A user identified that a program installed in a workstation does not have optional features enabled. Which of the following must the technician do to install the optional features?

A.
Go to Programs and Features, uninstall the program, and reinstall it.
A.
Go to Programs and Features, uninstall the program, and reinstall it.
Answers
B.
Go to Administrative Tools and edit System Configuration.
B.
Go to Administrative Tools and edit System Configuration.
Answers
C.
Go to Administrative Tools and run Disk Cleanup.
C.
Go to Administrative Tools and run Disk Cleanup.
Answers
D.
Go to Programs and Features, select the program, and click on Change.
D.
Go to Programs and Features, select the program, and click on Change.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

When a user needs to install optional features for a program that is already installed, the technician should:

Go to Programs and Features: Access this via the Control Panel.

Select the program: Find the installed program in the list.

Click on Change: The 'Change' option allows modifications to the installed program, such as adding or removing features, without completely uninstalling and reinstalling the program.

This method is the most efficient and avoids unnecessary reinstallation of the software, which could lead to data loss or require reconfiguration.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 1.4: Given a scenario use the appropriate Microsoft Windows 10 Control Panel utility.

Windows application management documentation.

Which of the following change management practices lists all the changes that are taking place for a project to ensure that no unexpected changes happen?

A.
Risk analysis
A.
Risk analysis
Answers
B.
Scope
B.
Scope
Answers
C.
Rollback plan
C.
Rollback plan
Answers
D.
Review
D.
Review
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

In change management, the scope of a project lists all the changes that are taking place. The scope ensures that all team members understand the boundaries and extent of the project, helping to prevent unexpected changes. Here's a detailed explanation:

Scope: Defines the project's boundaries and deliverables, including all the planned changes. It ensures that everyone involved understands what is included and excluded in the project, minimizing unexpected changes.

Risk analysis: Identifies potential risks and their impact but does not list the changes.

Rollback plan: Provides a strategy for reverting changes if something goes wrong but does not list changes.

Review: Involves evaluating changes but does not compile the list of changes.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 4.2: Explain basic change-management best practices.

Change management documentation.

A user receives a message on a PC stating it has been infected by malware. A technician runs a full scan on the user's machine and detects no malware. Later that day, the same message reappears. Which of the following steps should the technician take to restore the system to regular functionality?

A.
Check for Windows updates.
A.
Check for Windows updates.
Answers
B.
Reimage the computer.
B.
Reimage the computer.
Answers
C.
Enable Windows Firewall.
C.
Enable Windows Firewall.
Answers
D.
Run System File Checker.
D.
Run System File Checker.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

In change management, the scope of a project lists all the changes that are taking place. The scope ensures that all team members understand the boundaries and extent of the project, helping to prevent unexpected changes. Here's a detailed explanation:

Scope: Defines the project's boundaries and deliverables, including all the planned changes. It ensures that everyone involved understands what is included and excluded in the project, minimizing unexpected changes.

Risk analysis: Identifies potential risks and their impact but does not list the changes.

Rollback plan: Provides a strategy for reverting changes if something goes wrong but does not list changes.

Review: Involves evaluating changes but does not compile the list of changes.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 4.2: Explain basic change-management best practices.

Change management documentation.

A user's home system has been infected with malware. A technician has isolated the system from the network and disabled System Restore. Which of the following should the technician do next?

A.
Perform an antivirus scan.
A.
Perform an antivirus scan.
Answers
B.
Run Windows updates.
B.
Run Windows updates.
Answers
C.
Reimage the system.
C.
Reimage the system.
Answers
D.
Enable System Restore.
D.
Enable System Restore.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

When dealing with a malware-infected system, isolating the system from the network and disabling System Restore are critical initial steps. The next step in the malware removal process should be:

Perform an antivirus scan: This helps to identify and remove the malware from the system. Running a thorough scan using updated antivirus software is essential to detect and clean any malicious files.

Run Windows updates: This is important for system security but should be done after the malware is removed to avoid further issues.

Reimage the system: This is a more drastic measure and should be considered if the antivirus scan cannot fully clean the system.

Enable System Restore: This should only be done after the system is confirmed to be clean.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 3.3: Given a scenario use best practice procedures for malware removal.

Malware removal best practices documentation.

A technician needs to configure a computer for a user to work from home so the user can still securely access the user's shared files and corporate email. Which of the following tools would best accomplish this task?

A.
MSRA
A.
MSRA
Answers
B.
FTP
B.
FTP
Answers
C.
RMM
C.
RMM
Answers
D.
VPN
D.
VPN
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

To securely access shared files and corporate email from home, the best tool to use is a Virtual Private Network (VPN). Here's why:

VPN (Virtual Private Network): A VPN creates a secure connection over the internet, allowing the user to access the corporate network as if they were on-site. It encrypts the data transmitted between the user's home and the corporate network, ensuring privacy and security.

MSRA (Microsoft Remote Assistance): Used for remote support but not for accessing shared files and emails securely.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol): Used for transferring files but does not provide secure access to a corporate network or email.

RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management): Used by IT professionals to manage client systems remotely but not for user access to shared files and emails.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 2.9: Given a scenario configure appropriate security settings on small office/home office (SOHO) wireless and wired networks.

VPN configuration and security documentation.

Which of the following documents in criminal proceedings must be updated every time a piece of evidence is touched or transferred in order for the evidence to be considered valid?

A.
Licensing agreement
A.
Licensing agreement
Answers
B.
Regulatory compliance
B.
Regulatory compliance
Answers
C.
Incident documentation
C.
Incident documentation
Answers
D.
Chain of custody
D.
Chain of custody
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

In criminal proceedings, maintaining the integrity of evidence is crucial. The document that must be updated every time evidence is handled or transferred is:

Chain of custody: This document tracks the history of the evidence, detailing every person who has handled it and every transfer that has occurred. It ensures that the evidence has not been tampered with and maintains its validity in court.

Licensing agreement: Pertains to software usage rights and has no relation to evidence handling.

Regulatory compliance: Refers to adherence to laws and regulations, not evidence tracking.

Incident documentation: Details the incident but does not specifically track evidence handling.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 4.6: Explain the importance of prohibited content/activity and privacy, licensing, and policy concepts.

Legal documentation and evidence handling procedures.

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