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A department manager submits a help desk ticket to request the migration of a printer's port utilization from USB to Ethernet so multiple users can access the printer. This will be a new network printer, thus a new IP address allocation is required. Which of the following should happen immediately before network use is authorized?

A.
Document the date and time of the change.
A.
Document the date and time of the change.
Answers
B.
Submit a change request form.
B.
Submit a change request form.
Answers
C.
Determine the risk level of this change.
C.
Determine the risk level of this change.
Answers
D.
Request an unused IP address.
D.
Request an unused IP address.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A change request form is a document that describes the proposed change, the reason for the change, the impact of the change, and the approval process for the change. A change request form is required for any planned changes to the network, such as adding a new network printer, to ensure that the change is authorized, documented, and communicated to all stakeholders. Submitting a change request form should happen immediately before network use is authorized, as stated in the Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide. The other options are either too late (documenting the date and time of the change) or too early (determining the risk level of the change and requesting an

unused IP address) in the change management process.

A payroll workstation has data on it that needs to be readily available and can be recovered quickly if something is accidentally removed. Which of the following backup methods should be used to provide fast data recovery in this situation?

A.
Full
A.
Full
Answers
B.
Differential
B.
Differential
Answers
C.
Synthetic
C.
Synthetic
Answers
D.
Incremental
D.
Incremental
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A full backup does not depend on any previous backups, unlike differential or incremental backups, which only save the changes made since the last backup. A synthetic backup is a type of full backup that combines an existing full backup with incremental backups to create a new full backup, but it still requires multiple backup sets to recover data. Therefore, a full backup is the most suitable for the payroll workstation that needs to have its data readily available and recoverable. You can learn more about the differences between full, differential, incremental, and synthetic backups from this article.

A user connected a smartphone to a coffee shop's public Wi-Fi and noticed the smartphone started sending unusual SMS messages and registering strange network activity A technician thinks a virus or other malware has infected the device. Which of the following should the technician suggest the user do to best address these security and privacy concerns? (Select two).

A.
Disable Wi-Fi autoconnect.
A.
Disable Wi-Fi autoconnect.
Answers
B.
Stay offline when in public places.
B.
Stay offline when in public places.
Answers
C.
Uninstall all recently installed applications.
C.
Uninstall all recently installed applications.
Answers
D.
Schedule an antivirus scan.
D.
Schedule an antivirus scan.
Answers
E.
Reboot the device
E.
Reboot the device
Answers
F.
Update the OS
F.
Update the OS
Answers
Suggested answer: C, D

Explanation:

The best way to address the security and privacy concerns caused by a malware infection on a smartphone is to uninstall all recently installed applications and schedule an antivirus scan.

Uninstalling the applications that may have introduced the malware can help remove the source of infection and prevent further damage. Scheduling an antivirus scan can help detect and remove any remaining traces of malware and restore the device’s functionality.

Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Mobile Devices,

Section 5.3: Mobile Device Security1

A customer is accessing a public kiosk in a company's lobby. Which of the following should be enforced to mitigate the risk of customer data being accidentally saved to the kiosk?

A.
Manually clearing browsing data
A.
Manually clearing browsing data
Answers
B.
Private-browsing mode
B.
Private-browsing mode
Answers
C.
Browser data synchronization
C.
Browser data synchronization
Answers
D.
Password manager
D.
Password manager
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Private-browsing mode is the best option to mitigate the risk of customer data being accidentally saved to the kiosk. Private-browsing mode prevents the browser from storing cookies, history, passwords, and other data that could reveal the customer’s identity or preferences. Manually clearing browsing data is not a reliable option, as it depends on the customer’s awareness and willingness to do so. Browser data synchronization and password manager are features that could actually increase the risk of customer data being exposed, as they could sync or autofill sensitive information across devices or accounts. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 12

Certification Study Guides and Books | CompTIA IT Certifications, CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1101

Certification Study Guide, page 234

A company's assets are scanned annually. Which of the following will most likely help the company gain a holistic view of asset cost?

A.
Creating a database
A.
Creating a database
Answers
B.
Assigning users to assets
B.
Assigning users to assets
Answers
C.
Inventorying asset tags
C.
Inventorying asset tags
Answers
D.
Updating the procurement account owners
D.
Updating the procurement account owners
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Creating a database is the most likely option to help the company gain a holistic view of asset cost. A database can store and organize information about the assets, such as purchase date, depreciation value, maintenance cost, warranty status, and replacement cost. Assigning users to assets, inventorying asset tags, and updating the procurement account owners are important steps for asset management, but they do not directly provide a holistic view of asset cost. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 18

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 101

A remote user is experiencing issues connecting to a corporate email account on a laptop. The user clicks the internet connection icon and does not recognize the connected Wi-Fi. The help desk technician, who is troubleshooting the issue, assumes this is a rogue access point. Which of the following is the first action the technician should take?

A.
Restart the wireless adapter.
A.
Restart the wireless adapter.
Answers
B.
Launch the browser to see if it redirects to an unknown site.
B.
Launch the browser to see if it redirects to an unknown site.
Answers
C.
Instruct the user to disconnect the Wi-Fi.
C.
Instruct the user to disconnect the Wi-Fi.
Answers
D.
Instruct the user to run the installed antivirus software.
D.
Instruct the user to run the installed antivirus software.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Instructing the user to disconnect the Wi-Fi is the first action the technician should take if they suspect a rogue access point. A rogue access point is an unauthorized wireless network that could be used to intercept or manipulate network traffic, compromise security, or launch attacks.

Disconnecting the Wi-Fi would prevent further exposure or damage to the user’s device or data.

Restarting the wireless adapter, launching the browser, or running the antivirus software are possible actions to take after disconnecting the Wi-Fi, but they are not as urgent or effective as the first step. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 22

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 456

A technician is investigating options to secure a small office's wireless network. One requirement is to allow automatic log-ins to the network using certificates instead of passwords. Which of the following should the wireless solution have in order to support this feature?

A.
RADIUS
A.
RADIUS
Answers
B.
AES
B.
AES
Answers
C.
EAP-EKE
C.
EAP-EKE
Answers
D.
MFA
D.
MFA
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

RADIUS is the correct answer for this question. RADIUS stands for Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service, and it is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for wireless networks. RADIUS can support certificate-based authentication, which allows users to log in to the network automatically without entering passwords. RADIUS also provides other benefits, such as enforcing security policies, logging user activities, and managing network access.

AES, EAP-EKE, and MFA are not wireless solutions, but rather encryption algorithms, authentication methods, and security factors, respectively. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 23

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 459

A technician is working on a Windows 10 PC that has unwanted applications starting on boot. Which of the following tools should the technician use to disable applications on startup?

A.
System Configuration
A.
System Configuration
Answers
B.
Task Manager
B.
Task Manager
Answers
C.
Performance Monitor
C.
Performance Monitor
Answers
D.
Group Policy Editor
D.
Group Policy Editor
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Task Manager is the best tool to use to disable applications on startup in Windows 10. Task Manager is a built-in utility that shows the current processes, performance, and users on a system. It also has a Startup tab that lists the applications that run on boot and their impact on the system. The technician can use Task Manager to disable or enable any application on startup by right-clicking on it and selecting the appropriate option. System Configuration, Performance Monitor, and Group Policy Editor are other tools that can be used to manage system settings, but they are not as simple or convenient as Task Manager for this task. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 13

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 103

Which of the following is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3?

A.
Connection security
A.
Connection security
Answers
B.
Encryption key length
B.
Encryption key length
Answers
C.
Device compatibility
C.
Device compatibility
Answers
D.
Offline decryption resistance
D.
Offline decryption resistance
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Device compatibility is an advantage of using WPA2 instead of WPA3. WPA2 is the previous version of the Wi-Fi Protected Access protocol, which provides security and encryption for wireless networks. WPA3 is the latest version, which offers improved security features, such as stronger encryption, enhanced protection against brute-force attacks, and easier configuration. However, WPA3 is not backward compatible with older devices that only support WPA2 or earlier protocols.

Therefore, using WPA3 may limit the range of devices that can connect to the wireless network. Connection security, encryption key length, and offline decryption resistance are advantages of using WPA3 instead of WPA2. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 24

CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide (Exams 220-1101 & …, page 1000

A large university wants to equip all classrooms with high-definition IP videoconferencing equipment. Which of the following would most likely be impacted in this situation?

A.
SAN
A.
SAN
Answers
B.
LAN
B.
LAN
Answers
C.
GPU
C.
GPU
Answers
D.
PAN
D.
PAN
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

LAN is the most likely option to be impacted in this situation. LAN stands for Local Area Network, and it is a network that connects devices within a limited area, such as a building or a campus. Installing high-definition IP videoconferencing equipment in all classrooms would require a high bandwidth and reliable LAN infrastructure to support the video and audio transmission. The LAN would also need to be configured with proper security, quality of service, and multicast protocols to ensure the optimal performance of the videoconferencing system. SAN, GPU, and PAN are not directly related to this scenario. SAN stands for Storage Area Network, and it is a network that provides access to consolidated storage devices. GPU stands for Graphics Processing Unit, and it is a hardware component that handles graphics rendering and computation. PAN stands for Personal Area Network, and it is a network that connects devices within a short range, such as Bluetooth or infrared. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 20

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 104

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