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A systems administrator is troubleshooting network performance issues in a large corporate office.

The end users report that traffic to certain internal environments is not stable and often drops. Which of the following command-line tools can provide the most detailed information for investigating the issue further?

A.
ipconfig
A.
ipconfig
Answers
B.
arp
B.
arp
Answers
C.
nslookup
C.
nslookup
Answers
D.
pathping
D.
pathping
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Pathping is the best command-line tool to provide the most detailed information for investigating the network performance issue further. Pathping is a utility that combines the functions of ping and tracert, which are two other command-line tools that test network connectivity and latency.

Pathping sends packets to each router on the path to a destination and then computes results based on the packets returned from each hop. Pathping can show the route taken by the packets, the number of hops, the latency of each hop, and the packet loss percentage. This information can help the systems administrator identify where the network problem occurs and how severe it is. Ipconfig, arp, and nslookup are not as useful as pathping for this task. Ipconfig shows the configuration of the network interface card, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Arp shows the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses in the local network. Nslookup queries DNS servers for

domain name resolution. Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 21

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 457

Which of the following would allow physical access to a restricted area while maintaining a record of events?

A.
Hard token
A.
Hard token
Answers
B.
Access control vestibule
B.
Access control vestibule
Answers
C.
Key fob
C.
Key fob
Answers
D.
Door Lock
D.
Door Lock
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Access control vestibule is the correct answer for this question. An access control vestibule is a physical security device that consists of two doors that form an enclosed space between them. The first door opens only after verifying the identity of the person entering, such as by using a card reader, biometric scanner, or keypad. The second door opens only after the first door closes, creating a buffer zone that prevents unauthorized access or tailgating. An access control vestibule also maintains a record of events, such as who entered or exited, when, and how. Hard token, key fob, and door lock are not sufficient to meet the requirements of this question. A hard token is a device

that generates a one-time password or code for authentication purposes. A key fob is a small device that can be attached to a key ring and used to unlock doors or start vehicles remotely. A door lock is a mechanism that secures a door from opening without a key or a code. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25

A technician is partitioning a hard disk. The five primary partitions should contain 4TB of free space.

Which of the following partition styles should the technician use to partition the device?

A.
EFS
A.
EFS
Answers
B.
GPT
B.
GPT
Answers
C.
MBR
C.
MBR
Answers
D.
FAT32
D.
FAT32
Answers
Suggested answer: B

A user is setting up backups on a workstation. The user wants to ensure that the restore process is as simple as possible. Which of the following backup types should the user select?

A.
Full
A.
Full
Answers
B.
Incremental
B.
Incremental
Answers
C.
Differential
C.
Differential
Answers
D.
Synthetic
D.
Synthetic
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Full backup is the best option to ensure that the restore process is as simple as possible. A full backup is a backup type that copies all the data from the source to the destination, regardless of whether the data has changed or not. A full backup provides the most complete and consistent backup of the data, and it allows the user to restore the data from a single backup set without relying on any previous or subsequent backups. Incremental, differential, and synthetic backups are not as simple as full backups for restoring data. An incremental backup is a backup type that copies only the data that has changed since the last backup, whether it was full or incremental. An incremental backup

requires less time and space than a full backup, but it also requires multiple backup sets to restore the data completely. A differential backup is a backup type that copies only the data that has changed since the last full backup. A differential backup requires more time and space than an incremental backup, but it also requires fewer backup sets to restore the data than an incremental backup. A synthetic backup is a backup type that combines a full backup with one or more incremental or differential backups to create a consolidated backup set. A synthetic backup requires less time and bandwidth than a full backup, but it also requires more processing power and storage space than an

incremental or differential backup. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 15

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 458

Which of the following is used to ensure users have the appropriate level of access to perform their job functions?

A.
Access control list
A.
Access control list
Answers
B.
Multifactor authentication
B.
Multifactor authentication
Answers
C.
Least privilege
C.
Least privilege
Answers
D.
Mobile device management
D.
Mobile device management
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Least privilege is the principle that is used to ensure users have the appropriate level of access to perform their job functions. Least privilege means granting users only the minimum amount of access rights and permissions they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. Least privilege reduces the risk of unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or accidental damage by limiting what users can do on the system or network. Access control list, multifactor authentication, and mobile device management are not principles, but rather mechanisms or methods that can implement least privilege. Access control list is a list that specifies the users or groups that are allowed or denied access to a resource, such as a file, folder, or printer. Multifactor authentication is a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, or a biometric factor. Mobile device management is a tool that allows managing and securing mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, that are used by employees to access corporate data or applications. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25

[CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide], page 1003

Which of the following is command options is used to display hidden files and directories?

A.
-a
A.
-a
Answers
B.
-s
B.
-s
Answers
C.
-lh
C.
-lh
Answers
D.
-t
D.
-t
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The -a option is used to display hidden files and directories in a command-line interface. Hidden files and directories are those that start with a dot (.) and are normally not shown by default. The -a option stands for “all” and shows all files and directories, including the hidden ones. The -a option can be used with commands such as ls, dir, or find to list or search for hidden files and directories.

The -s, -lh, and -t options are not used to display hidden files and directories. The -s option stands for “size” and shows the size of files or directories in bytes. The -lh option stands for “long humanreadable” and shows the size of files or directories in a more readable format, such as KB, MB, or GB.

The -t option stands for “time” and sorts the files or directories by modification time. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 17

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 107

Which of the following file types would be used in the Windows Startup folder to automate copying a personal storage table (.pst file) to a network drive at log-in?

A.
.bat
A.
.bat
Answers
B.
.dll
B.
.dll
Answers
C.
.ps1
C.
.ps1
Answers
D.
.txt
D.
.txt
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The .bat file type would be used in the Windows Startup folder to automate copying a personal storage table (.pst) file to a network drive at log-in. A .bat file is a batch file that contains a series of commands that can be executed by the command interpreter. A .bat file can be used to perform various tasks, such as copying, moving, deleting, or renaming files or directories. A .bat file can be placed in the Windows Startup folder to run automatically when a user logs in to the system. A .bat file can use the copy command to copy a .pst file from a local drive to a network drive. A .pst file is a personal storage table file that contains email messages, contacts, calendars, and other data from

Microsoft Outlook. A .pst file can be backed up to a network drive for security or recovery purposes.

The .dll, .ps1, and .txt file types are not used in the Windows Startup folder to automate copying a .pst file to a network drive at log-in. A .dll file is a dynamic link library file that contains code or data that can be shared by multiple programs. A .dll file cannot be executed directly by the user or the system. A .ps1 file is a PowerShell script file that contains commands or expressions that can be executed by the PowerShell interpreter. A .ps1 file can also perform various tasks, such as copying files or directories, but it requires PowerShell to be installed and configured on the system. A .txt file is a plain text file that contains unformatted text that can be read by any text editor or word processor. A .txt file cannot contain commands or expressions that can be executed by the system. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 18

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 459

A systems administrator received a request to limit the amount of cellular data a user's Windows 10 tablet can utilize when traveling. Which of the following can the administrator do to best solve the user's issue?

A.
Turn on airplane mode.
A.
Turn on airplane mode.
Answers
B.
Set the connection to be metered.
B.
Set the connection to be metered.
Answers
C.
Configure the device to use a static IP address.
C.
Configure the device to use a static IP address.
Answers
D.
Enable the Windows Defender Firewall.
D.
Enable the Windows Defender Firewall.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Setting the connection to be metered is the best solution for limiting the amount of cellular data a user’s Windows 10 tablet can utilize when traveling. A metered connection is a network connection that has a data limit or charges fees based on the amount of data used. Windows 10 allows users to set any network connection as metered, which reduces the amount of data that Windows and some apps use in the background. For example, setting a connection as metered will prevent Windows from downloading updates automatically, stop some apps from syncing data online, and disable some live tiles on the Start menu. Setting a connection as metered can help users save cellular data

and avoid extra charges when traveling. Turning on airplane mode, configuring the device to use a static IP address, and enabling the Windows Defender Firewall are not effective solutions for limiting the amount of cellular data a user’s Windows 10 tablet can utilize when traveling. Turning on airplane mode will disable all wireless connections on the device, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and cellular data. This will prevent the user from accessing any online services or applications on the tablet. Configuring the device to use a static IP address will assign a fixed IP address to the device instead of obtaining one dynamically from a DHCP server. This will not affect the amount of cellular data the device uses, and it may cause IP conflicts or connectivity issues on some networks. Enabling the Windows Defender Firewall will block or allow incoming and outgoing network traffic based on

predefined or custom rules. This will not reduce the amount of cellular data the device uses, and it may interfere with some apps or services that require network access. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 19

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 108

A technician successfully removed malicious software from an infected computer after running updates and scheduled scans to mitigate future risks. Which of the following should the technician do next?

A.
Educate the end user on best practices for security.
A.
Educate the end user on best practices for security.
Answers
B.
Quarantine the host in the antivirus system.
B.
Quarantine the host in the antivirus system.
Answers
C.
Investigate how the system was infected with malware.
C.
Investigate how the system was infected with malware.
Answers
D.
Create a system restore point.
D.
Create a system restore point.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Educating the end user on best practices for security is the next step that the technician should take after successfully removing malicious software from an infected computer. Educating the end user on best practices for security is an important part of preventing future infections and mitigating risks. The technician should explain to the end user how to avoid common sources of malware, such as phishing emails, malicious websites, or removable media. The technician should also advise the end user to use strong passwords, update software regularly, enable antivirus and firewall protection, and backup data frequently. Educating the end user on best practices for security can help the end

user become more aware and responsible for their own security and reduce the likelihood of recurrence of malware infections. Quarantining the host in the antivirus system, investigating how the system was infected with malware, and creating a system restore point are not the next steps that the technician should take after successfully removing malicious software from an infected computer. Quarantining the host in the antivirus system is a step that the technician should take before removing malicious software from an infected computer. Quarantining the host in the antivirus system means isolating the infected computer from the network or other devices to

prevent the spread of malware. Investigating how the system was infected with malware is a step that the technician should take during or after removing malicious software from an infected computer. Investigating how the system was infected with malware means identifying the source, type, and impact of malware on the system and documenting the findings and actions taken.

Creating a system restore point is a step that the technician should take before removing malicious software from an infected computer. Creating a system restore point means saving a snapshot of the system’s configuration and settings at a certain point in time, which can be used to restore the system in case of failure or corruption. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 15

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 458

Maintaining the chain of custody is an important part of the incident response process. Which of the following reasons explains why this is important?

A.
To maintain an information security policy
A.
To maintain an information security policy
Answers
B.
To properly identify the issue
B.
To properly identify the issue
Answers
C.
To control evidence and maintain integrity
C.
To control evidence and maintain integrity
Answers
D.
To gather as much information as possible
D.
To gather as much information as possible
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Maintaining the chain of custody is important to control evidence and maintain integrity. The chain of custody is a process that documents who handled, accessed, or modified a piece of evidence, when, where, how, and why. The chain of custody ensures that the evidence is preserved, protected, and authenticated throughout the incident response process. Maintaining the chain of custody can help prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of evidence, as well as establish its reliability and validity in legal proceedings. Maintaining an information security policy, properly identifying the issue, and gathering as much information as possible are not reasons why maintaining the chain of custody is

important. Maintaining an information security policy is a general practice that defines the rules and guidelines for securing an organization’s information assets and resources. Properly identifying the issue is a step in the incident response process that involves analyzing and classifying the incident based on its severity, impact, and scope. Gathering as much information as possible is a step in the incident response process that involves collecting and documenting relevant data and evidence from various sources, such as logs, alerts, or witnesses. Reference:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 26

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